NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (2018): Walden University
NURS 6560-Midterm Exam (2018): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University
S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2 lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy?
A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months
B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist
C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Surgical consultation and intervention
An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except:
A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome
B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis
C. Crushing chest pain
D. History of giant cell arteritis
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders:
A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
B. CT scan of the neck
C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of:
A. Poorly calculated solution
B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction
C. The central venous line used for infusion
D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is:
A. < 10%
D. > 90
One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up
B. A change in mental status
C. SaO2 of < 88%
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27%
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with:
A. Respiratory insufficiency
C. Bowel obstruction
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications.
Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include:
A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department
B. Periodic esophagram
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects:
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order:
A.A urinalysis and culture
B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours
C. Encourage increased mobility
D.Liberalize salt in the diet
All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except:
A.Connective tissue disease
B. Scuba diving
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D.Central line insertion
The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may:
A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation
B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively
C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay
D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk
In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer?
B. Percutaneous needle biopsy
C. CT scan
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A.Calcium channel antagonists
B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
C. Pneumatic dilation
D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication
Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first?
A.Renal function tests
B. Parathyroid hormone
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include:
A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography
B. Modification of activity level
C. Baseline cardiac catheterization
D. Statin therapy
The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of:
A. Physiologic reflux
B. Symptomatic esophagitis
C. Barrett’s metaplasia
While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na 132 mEq/L K 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid:
C. Metabolic alkalosis
W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1 year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is:
C. Esophageal carcinoma
Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock?
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in:
A.Decreased nitric oxide production
B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
C. Collagen degradation
D.Enlarged arterial lumen
Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are:
B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Anginal equivalents
D.Normal age-related changes
Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes:
A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation
B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation
C. Acute cardiac tamponade
D. Acute pulmonary embolus
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that:
A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first?
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be:
A.A CT scan
B. Eloesser’s procedure
Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is:
B. Thromboemboli development
C. Poor wound healing
The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as:
B. Bochdalek’s hernia
C. Morgagni’s hernia
B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because:
A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months
B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months
C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year
D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment?
A.All patients > 40 years of age
B. All patients who smoke cigarettes
C. All patients having thoracic procedures
D.All patients with cardiac disease
According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to:
B. Excessive leaflet motion
C. Ruptured papillary muscles
D.Rheumatic heart disease
V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with:
A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B. High-output septic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation?
B. Cardiac compressive
B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room?
A.A cardiology consultation
B. Blood pressure control
C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Pain control
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is:
A. Production of a dry ear
B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing
C. Debridement of infection
D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except:
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for:
A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome
B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively
C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism
D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that:
A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include:
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
A.Endothelial cell dysfunction
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is:
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Adverse drug effect
D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is:
A. Progressive esophageal discomfort
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D.Long-term malabsorption problems
R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely:
A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord
B. At the level of T10
C. Precipitating sepsis
D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation
Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies?
B. Complete blood count
C. 12-lead electrocardiogram
Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients:
A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism
B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease
C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule
D. At risk for thyroid cancer
Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include:
B. 12-lead ECG
D.Chemical stress test
Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with:
A.Digitalis for heart rate control
B. Radioactive ablation
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for:
B. Scar tissue formation
H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has:
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except:
B. Functional status
C. Competency assessment
D. Frailty score
Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for:
A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection
B. Resection of malignant tumor
D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy
Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy?
A.A temperature of 100.5°F
B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness
C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision
D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid
Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids:
B. In 24 hours
C. When bowel sounds return
D.After a negative swallow study
When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except:
A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal
B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up
C. The plan for ongoing monitoring
D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis
T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis?
A.A 48 pack year smoke history
B. A 2-day history of vomiting
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes:
A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain
B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days
C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora
D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m.
K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that:
A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others.
B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes.
C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients.
D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 .
Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen?
A. A proton pump inhibitor
B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist
C. A calcium channel antagonist
D. A promotility agent
S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include:
D. Expansile stents
D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to:
C. Bird excrement
D. Swimming pools
Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except:
A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status
C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates:
A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm
B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement
C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement
D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement
K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate?
A. Scalene biopsy
B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
C. Pleural needle biopsy
D.Open surgical biopsy
While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg
C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg
A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg
C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg
Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except:
The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate?
A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization
B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction
C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function
D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension
T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that:
A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized
B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed
C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased
D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen
Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na 126 mEq/L K 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse?
C. Metabolic acidosis
Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Chewing gum
Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be:
A.Repeat radiography in 6 months
B. CT scan of the chest
C. Needle biopsy of the lesion
D.A pulmonology consult
Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat
B. Pointed nail
C. Button battery
Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process?
A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential
B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20
C. Pain to palpation at the incision site
D.A significant decrease in appetite
L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should:
A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it
B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure
C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place
D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life
Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that:
A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers
B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed
C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear
D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support
Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of:
D.Adverse drug effect
When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure?
A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement
B. Mechanical valve replacement
C. Native valve debridement
D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy
Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably:
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Still’s murmur
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert?
With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL
B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held
C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy
D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells
Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for:
Barrett’s esophagus is best described as:
A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux
B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age
C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation
D.A secondary motility disorder
Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Upper endoscopy
Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes:
A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit
B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s
C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes
D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg
W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Transvenous pacing
B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4
D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is:
A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients
B. Implanted below the diaphragm
C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours
D.Good for up to 2 years
Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that:
A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress
B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories
C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use.
D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in
Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few hours without using his nasal spray. The nasal mucosa is edematous and hyperemic on inspection. The AGACNP know that this patient suffers from:
B. Rhinitis medicamentosa
C. Adverse drug effect
D. Psychological dependence
Mrs. Knickerson is an 89-year-old female who lives alone at home. She is generally in good health, and her functional status is reasonably strong. Her son and daughter-in-law stop by once or twice a week and help her with some household chores. Mrs. Knickerson’s only medical diagnosis is hypertension, for which she has taken HCTZ 12.5 mg for as long as she can remember. Today when her son went into the home, he found her in bed, clearly unwell and a bit disoriented. Upon hospital admission, she is found to have vital signs as follows: temperature 100.9°F, pulse 122 bpm, respirations 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 82/53 mm Hg. Her saO2 on 2 L of nasal oxygen is 89%. Chest radiograph is clear, and 12-lead ECG demonstrates sinus tachycardia. Urinalysis reveals white blood cells, nitrites, red blood cells, and bacteriuria. The AGACNP suspects which of the following shock states?
Which of the following is a true statement with respect to needle lung biopsy?
A.It is the preferred method of biopsy in patients with comorbid pulmonary hypertension
B. It is highly sensitive, yielding diagnostic data in > 90% of patients
C. Serious complications are very rare
D.There is concern about spreading a tumor in patients with localized disease
S. is a 55-year-old male patient with obstructive sleep apnea. He is motivated to control his condition and has been adherent to conservative therapeutic options. He has lost almost 65 lbs and now has a body mass index of 29. He drinks alcohol < 1 x monthly and does not smoke cigarettes. He had difficulty adjusting to bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) but has used it for several months, with only marginal improvement. He presents today to talk about surgical options. The AGACNP counsels J. S. that:
A.He is not a strong candidate for surgical success
B. Before the operation, he needs to reduce his BMI to 25
C. The first step would be tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy
D.The best out outcomes occur with multilevel surgery
The process by which an assessment of the patient is performed, before an operation, to evaluate overall health and identify risk factors for intra- and postoperative complications is known as:
A. Preoperative evaluation
B. Diagnostic evaluation
C. Preoperative preparation
Mrs. Carroll is an 81-year-old female who is going to have a surgical procedure for removal of an obstructing large-bowel tumor. While assessing her nutritional status, the AGACNP knows that which of the following is a severe risk factor for poor surgical outcome?
A.Admitting body mass index of 18.1 kg/m2
B. 3 day dietary history of < 1200 calories daily
C. A serum albumin of 3.2 g/dL
D.Unplanned weight loss of 8 lbs. in the last 6 months.
Carolyn is a 25-year-old injection drug user who has had a long history of health problems since her early teenage years. She has preexisting mitral valve regurgitation and has had endocarditis in the past. She is now being treated for lung abscess that presumably occurred with aspiration in an intoxicated state. She was admitted and started on intravenous antibiotic therapy, IV fluids, and nutritional support. She is now on day 5 of antibiotic therapy and remains septic and febrile. The AGACNP knows that the indicated course of treatment includes:
A.Continued antibiotic therapy with evaluation on day 7
B. Change to a different extended spectrum antibiotic
C. Percutaneous drainage of the abscess
D.Thoracotomy with open drainage
Mr. Zuckerman is a 62-year-old man who presents for evaluation of a sense of difficulty swallowing and food getting stuck. He also reports that sometimes he can hear or “feel” a gurgling sound in his throat. He had a barium swallow study that demonstrated a large pharyngoesophageal (Zenker’s) diverticulum. The AGACNP knows that which of the following additional diagnostic studies is not indicated?
B. Chest radiograph
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Which of the following foreign bodies in the ear canal is considered a surgical emergency that requires immediate intervention by otolaryngology (ENT) without any attempt to remove by a non-ENT provider?
A.A popcorn kernel
B. A cockroach
C. A button battery
D.A piece of cotton
When a patient has suspected postoperative bleeding, the immediate priority of care is to:
A.Identify the bleeding site
B. Ensure hemodynamic stability
C. Transfuse packed red blood cells
D.Obtain a stat surgical consult
Mr. Quigley is a 56-year-old male patient who presents for evaluation of difficulty swallowing. Physical examination of the oropharynx reveals a pink irregular mass of approximately 4 cm in the posterior pharynx. The patient is advised that he appears to have an abnormal growth and will need to be referred to otolaryngology. He asks how he got a tumor in his throat. The AGACNP replies that the greatest risk factor(s) for oropharyngeal tumors is(are):
A.Tobacco and alcohol use
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
C. Family history of a first degree relative
D. Female gender
Farmer, R.F. & Chapman (2016). Behavioral interventions in cognitive behavior therapy: Practical guidance for putting theory into action (second edition). Washington, DC, US: American Psychological Association.
These notes are easy-to-read and include all the major concepts and summaries of this book. They will save you a lot of time since reading this book is time-consuming, especially when all your exams are during a small time frame. The writer of this document scored an 8.5 in this course.
Inleverdocument van de literatuurstudie
Voorbeeldverslag voor je literatuurstudie! Beoordeeld met een 8. Beoordeling / tips zijn in het kader in het verslag zichtbaar.
Samenvatting van Psychodiagnostiek uit jaar 3 op Maastricht University (2018-2019). Inclusief de alle wetenschappelijke artikelen die relevant waren en ook enkele lectures zijn erin verwerkt. Artikelen:
- Books Gregory (Chapter 3B) and Kaplan & Saccuzzo (Chapter 4).
- Cortina, J.M. (1993). What is coefficient alpha? An examination of theory and applications. Journal
of Applied Psychology, 78, 98–104.
- De Champlain, A.F. (2010). A primer on classical test theory and item response theory for
assessments in medical education. Medical Education, 44, 109-117.
- Evers, A., Sijtsma, K., Lucassen, W., & Meijer, R.R. (2010). The Dutch review process for
evaluating the quality of psychological tests: History, procedure, and results. International Journal of Testing, 10, 295-317.
- Books Gregory (Chapter 4A) and Kaplan & Saccuzzo (Chapter 5).
- Messick, S. (1995). Validity of psychological assessment. American Psychologist, 50, 741-749.
- Evers, A., Sijtsma, K., Lucassen, W., & Meijer, R.R. (2010). The Dutch review process for
evaluating the quality of psychological tests: History, procedure, and results. International Journal of Testing, 10, 295-317.
- Book Gregory (Chapter 4B)
- Garb, H.N., Wood, J.M. & Fiedler, E.R. (2011). A comparison of three strategies for scale
construction to predict a specific behavioral outcome. Assessment, 18, 399-411.
- Lecture “Methods for test design” (Monday 18 June)
- Books Gregory (Chapter 3A) and Kaplan & Saccuzzo (Chapter 2).
- Van Breukelen, G.J.P. & Vlaeyen, J.W.S. (2005). Norming clinical questionnaires with multiple
regression: The pain cognition list. Psychological Assessment, 17, 336-344.
- Evers, A., Sijtsma, K., Lucassen, W., & Meijer, R.R. (2010). The Dutch review process for
evaluating the quality of psychological tests: History, procedure, and results. International Journal of Testing, 10, 295-317.
- Books Gregory (Chapter 6B) and Kaplan & Saccuzzo (Chapter 19)
- Nieuwkerk, P.T., Tollenaar, M.S., Oort, F.J. & Sprangers, M.A.G. (2007). Are retrospective measures
of change in quality of life more valid than prospective measures? Medical Care, 45, 199-205.
- Sprangers, M.A.G. & Schwartz, C.E. (1999). Integrating response shift into health related quality of
life research: a theoretical model. Social Science & Medicine, 48, 1507-1515.
- Parts of books Gregory (Chapter 6B) and Kaplan & Saccuzzo (Chapter 19)
- Ji, L.J., Zhang, Z., & Nisbett, R.E. (2004). Is it culture or is it language? Examination of language effects in cross-cultural research on categorization, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 87, 57-65.
- te Nijenhuis,J., Tolboom, E., Resing, W., & Bleichrodt, N. (2004). Does cultural background influence the intellectual performance of children from immigrant groups? European Journal of Psychological Assessment, 20, 10-26.
- Rienties, B., & Tempelaar, D. (2013). The role of cultural dimensions of international and Dutch students on academic and social integration and academic performance in the Netherlands.
- Rosselli, M., & Ardila, A. (2003). The impact of culture and education on non-verbal
neuropsychological measurements: A critical review. Brain and Cognition, 52, 326-333.
- Van de Vijver, F., & Tanzer, N.K. (2004). Bias and equivalence in cross-cultural assessment: an
overview. Revue Européenne de Psychologie Appliquée, 54, 119-135.
- Books Gregory (Chapter 8A) and Kaplan & Saccuzzo (Chapter 14).
- Imuta, K., Scarf, D., Pharo, H. & Hayne, H. (2013). Drawing a close to the use of human figure
drawings as a projective measure of intelligence.
- Dutch Association of Psychologists (NIP) (2017). Guidelines for the use of tests 2017. Amsterdam: NIP.
- Dutch Association of Psychologists (NIP) (2015). Code of Ethics for Psychologists (Beroepscode
voor psychologen). Amsterdam: NIP.
- Van Strien, P.J. (1997). Towards a methodology of psychological practice. The regulative cycle.
Theory & Psychology, 7, 683-700.
- Arkes, H.R. (1981). Impediments to accurate clinical judgment and possible ways to minimize their impact. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 49, 323-330.
- Dawes, R.M., Faust, D., & Meehl, P.E. (1989). Clinical versus actuarial judgment. Science, 243, 1668- 1674.
- Harding, T.P. (2004). Psychiatric disability and clinical decision making: The impact of judgment error and bias. Clinical Psychology Review, 24, 707-729.
- Kleinmuntz, B., Faust, D., Meehl, P.E., & Dawes, R.M. (1990). Clinical and actuarial judgment. Science, 247, 146-147.
- Medow, M.A. & Lucey, C.R. (2011). A qualitative approach to Bayes’ theorem. Evidence-Based Medicine, 16, 163-167.
- Streiner, D. & Geddes, J. (1998). Some useful concepts and terms used in articles about diagnosis. Evidence-Based Mental Health, 1, 6–7.
- Swets, J.A., Dawes, R.M. & Monahan, J. (2000). Better decisions through science. Scientific American, October, 82-87.
- Westbury, C.F. (2010). Bayes’ rule for clinicians: an introduction. Frontiers in Psychology, 1, November.
NURS 6521N Week 2 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pharmacology: Walden University (Verified answers, Scored A)
NURS 6521N Week 2 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pharmacology: Walden University
A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperated by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that
drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves.
she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine.
pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use.
under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription.
A nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient of Chinese origin who has bipolar disorder. The physician has prescribed lithium carbonate (Eskalith) to treat the disorder. The nurse is aware that the lithium dose will likely be given in a
weight-based protocol dose.
A nurse has just completed a medication history on a newly admitted patient. In order to complete medication reconciliation for this patient the nurse will
Provide instructions pertaining to each medication the patient is currently taking and then add the medications ordered during the hospitalization.
explain to the patient the pharmacokinetics of each drug he will be taking in the hospital.
compare the medications ordered by the health care provider with the list of medications obtained from the patient and communicate discrepancies to the health care provider.
determine the best pharmacy for the patient to buy his medications.
Which of the following patients should be advised by the nurse to avoid over-the-counter cold and allergy preparations that contain phenylephrine?
A 52-year-old male with adult-onset diabetes
A 62-year-old male with gout
A 47-year-old female with hypertension
A 17-year-old female with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection
A patient has taken an overdose of a vitamin/mineral supplement containing magnesium. The nurse will be sure to assess
A nurse practitioner understands when prescribing a medication that there are certain questions to address. Check all that apply.
Is there a need for the drug in treating the presenting problem?
Is this the best drug for the presenting problem?
Can the patient take the prescribed drug?
None of the above.
A patient has been prescribed a drug that can be self-administered at home. Which of the following would be the most important information for the nurse to relate to the patient concerning self-administration of a drug?
The pharmacokinetics of the drug
The therapeutic effects and possible adverse effects
The cost of the drug
Where to purchase the medication
What critical piece of information is missing from the following medication order: Amoxicillin 250 mg every 8 hours?
Trade name of the drug
A patient has been prescribed a Scheduled 5 drug, an example of this drug is
A nurse is providing a patient with a list of drugs as a part of the patient's plan of care. Which of the following drug nomenclatures should the nurse use to list the drugs?
The drugs' biologic names
The drugs' chemical names
The drugs' trade names
The drugs' generic names
These drugs have a potential for abuse, but the potential is lower than for drugs on Schedule 2. These drugs contain a combination of controlled and noncontrolled substances. Use of these drugs can cause a moderate to low physiologic dependence and a higher psychological dependence. A verbal order can be given to the pharmacy and the prescription can be refilled up to five times within 6 months. Examples include certain narcotics (codeine) and nonbarbiturate sedatives. This is scheduled drug
A nurse is a member of a research team that is exploring unique differences in responses to drugs that each individual possesses, based on genetic make-up. This area of study is called
A nurse working for a drug company is involved in phase III drug evaluation studies. Which of the following might the nurse be responsible for during this stage of drug development?
Monitoring drug effects in patients who are selected to participate in a study, who have the disease that the drug is meant to treat
Administering investigational drugs to patients
Informing healthy, young volunteer participants of possible risks that could occur from taking an experimental drug
Working with animals who are given experimental drugs
A patient will begin three new medications as part of her treatment plan. The nurse practitioner understands that proper disposal of medications is key when the nurse practitioner states
Many medications can be potentially harmful if taken by someone other than the person the medication was prescribed.
Consult with several pharmacists to determine the cost of each drug.
educate the patient to discard syringes in recycle bin
consult with the physician concerning choice of medications for the patient.
The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 500 mg tid? What is the total amount of medication patient will take per day?
Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for abuse, both psychological and physiologic. In an emergency, a Schedule 2 drug may be prescribed by telephone if a written prescription cannot be provided at the time. However, a written prescription must be provided within 72 hours with the words authorization for emergency dispensing written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled. A new prescription must be written each time. Examples include certain amphetamines and barbiturates. This is scheduled drug
A nurse receives an order to administer a critically ill patient two drugs immediately (stat). The nurse begins the process by
consulting a drug guide for compatibility.
identifying the patient by checking the armband and asking the patient to state his name.
questioning the patient concerning allergies.
washing his or her hands before handling the medications.
Which of the following serves to protect the public by ensuring the purity of a drug and its contents?
United States Adopted Names Council
Nursing drug guides
American Pharmaceutical Association
A Native American man who lives a traditional lifestyle is scheduled to have heart surgery. The tribal chief has requested that the tribe's medicine man perform a ritual before the patient goes to surgery. The nurse's response to this request should be
“I don't think that will help, but you have the right to perform the ritual.”
“I'm sorry, but that will not be possible.”
“I will need to inform the doctor and see if he will allow this.”
“As long as the ritual does not interfere with the patient's preoperative care, it will be okay.”
A nurse is admitting a Mexican woman to the hospital who cannot speak or understand English. The patient is alone, and there is no interpreter available. When trying to communicate with the patient the nurse will
use nonverbal language.
exaggerate her mouth movements.
A physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug and that it is categorized as a
A nurse who provides care in a long-term care facility is documenting a new resident's medication regimen on the resident's intake admission. The nurse is documenting the generic, rather than proprietary, names of the resident's current drugs because
documentation of trade names for drugs requires permission from the manufacturer.
there is a potential for confusion and miscommunication if proprietary names are used.
drugs with generic names are prescribed and used differently than proprietary drugs.
proprietary names of drugs can vary from state to state.
A patient comes to primary clinic for strep throat. A throat swab culture is sent to lab. What information is required for the nurse practitioner to disclose on lab transmittal?
National Provider Identification (NPI)
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)
None of the above
A 46-year-old white American has been prescribed a drug that binds to acid glycoproteins. The nurse understands that white Americans usually receive
the recommended normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
a higher-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
a lower-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
one half the recommended dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
Drugs have a high potential for abuse. There is no routine therapeutic use for these drugs and they are not available for regular use. They may be obtained for “investigational use only” by applying to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency. Examples include heroin and LSD. Which scheduled drug is this?
Summary HRM, Work-design and technology
Summary of articles (including most figures and tables) :
- Grant A. M., Fried Y., Juillerat T. (2011). Work matters: Job design in classic and contemporary perspectives. In Zedeck S. (Eds.), APA handbook of industrial and organizational psychology: pp. 417-453. Washington, DC: American Psychological Association.
- Spreitzer, G., Garrett, L. & Cameron, L. (2017). Alternative work arrangements: Two images of the new world of work. Annual Review of Organizational Psychology and Organizational Behavior, 4(1), pp 473-491.
- Van Veldhoven, M. & Peccei, R. (2015). Contextualizing individual well-being and performance: Setting the scene. In: Van Veldhoven, M. and Peccei, R. (Eds.). Well-being and performance at work: the role of context (pp. 1-14). Hove: Psychology Press.
- Stone, D. L., Deadrick, D. L., Lukaszewski, K. M., & Johnson, R. (2015). The influence of technology on the future of human resource management. Human Resource Management Review, 25(2), 216-231.
- Bondarouk, T., & Ruël, H. (2013). The strategic value of e-HRM: results from an exploratory study in a governmental organization. The International Journal of Human Resource Management, 24(2), 391-414.
- Frederick P. Morgeson and Erich C. Dierdorff. (2011). "Work analysis: From technique to theory." In Zedeck S. (Eds.), APA handbook of industrial and organizational psychology: pp. 3-41. Washington, DC: American Psychological Association.
- Semmer, N. K., Jacobshagen, N., Meier, L. L., Elferin, A., Beehr, T. A., Kalin, W., & Tschan, F. (2015). Illegitimate tasks as a source of work stress. Work & Stress, 29(1): 32–56.
- Derks, D., & Bakker, A. B. (2014). Smartphone use, work–home interference, and burnout: A diary study on the role of recovery. Applied Psychology, 63(3), 411-440.
- Biron, M., & van Veldhoven, M. (2016). When control becomes a liability rather than an asset: Comparing home and office days among part‐time teleworkers. Journal of Organizational Behavior, 37(8), 1317-1337.
- Parker, S.K., Van den Broeck, A. & Holman, D. (2017). Work Design Influences: A Synthesis of Multilevel Factors that Affect the Design of Jobs. The Academy of Management Annals, 11(1), 267-308.
- Miner, A. S., & Akinsanmi, O. (Bukky). (2016). Idiosyncratic Jobs, Organizational Transformation, and Career Mobility. Research in the Sociology of Organizations, 61–101.
- Cascio, W. F., & Montealegre, R. (2016). How technology is changing work and organizations. Annual Review of Organizational Psychology and Organizational Behavior, 3, 349-375.
- Cardador, M. T., Northcraft, G. B., & Whicker, J. (2017). A theory of work gamification: Something old, something new, something borrowed, something cool? Human Resource Management Review, 27(2), 353-365.
- Wirtz, B. W., Weyerer, J. C., & Geyer, C. (2018). Artificial Intelligence and the Public Sector—Applications and Challenges. International Journal of Public Administration, 1-20.
- Hall, D.T. and Las Heras, M. (2010). Reintegrating job design and career theory: creating not just good jobs but smart jobs, Journal of Organizational Behavior, 31, 448-462.
- Fieseler, C., Bucher, E., & Hoffmann, C. P. (2017). Unfairness by Design? The Perceived
Fairness of Digital Labor on Crowdworking Platforms. Journal of business ethics, 1-19.
Psychology 321 |Washington State University: Grade 100%
The superegoâ€™s main function is to mediate between the idâ€™s impulses and the egoâ€™s sense of morality.
What is a common first reaction to the diagnosis of a fatal illness?
The defense mechanism of ________ keeps forbidden thoughts, feelings, and impulses out of awareness by replacing them with their opposites.
When you deal with an unpleasant or threatening feeling by turning it into a more objective thought, you use
Terror management theory is concerned with anxiety related to threats of modern-day terrorism.
John Bowlby was the earliest psychoanalyst to develop play therapy.
The psychological goal of attachment is
Research suggests that anxious-ambivalent children are relatively likely to grow up to be adults who tend to
Many neo-Freudians preserve Freudâ€™s spirit in their writings but reinterpret his original ideas.
In Jungian terms, the recurring images repeated in dreams, myths, and literature are called
Organ inferiority refers to a physical malady.
In Eriksonâ€™s view, important aspects of psychological development
Which of the following concepts is NOT associated with Adler?
Adler was interested in neurotic needs.
Jung emphasizes spiritual and mystical issues more than Freud.
What is the anima?
What is the overarching principle of object relations theory?
Object relations theory is still an active branch of psychoanalytic thinking.
Horney felt that when women experience penis envy, it symbolizes their
The internalized image of your own mother is a key archetype for Jung.
Dr. Ders is a psychotherapist who emphasizes the importance of relating to others as real people who have mixtures of virtues and vices. Dr. Ders is most likely a therapist in the tradition of
Jimmy is a 5-year-old boy. When his parents leave him with a babysitter, he latches onto his stuffed animal, Tim. In the terminology of the object relations theorist D. W. Winnicott, Tim is
Also known as Geworfenheit, _______ refers to the time, place, and circumstances into which you happened to be born.
Steven has come to terms with his mortality, accepted responsibility for his existence, and knows that he determines what happens in his life. Existentialists would say that Steven is
George Kellyâ€™s personal construct theory emphasizes that individuals
The theorist ________ would likely use the metaphor â€œhumans are scientistsâ€ to describe the nature of human psychology.
Your particular experience of the world is called your
George Kelly believed that to understand a person, you need to understand his or her personal construct system. This idea is known as.
Which of the following virtues does NOT appear to be particularly important in Eastern traditions?
Self-determination theorists believe that eudaimonia is dangerous.
What aspect of human psychological functioning is of particular interest to humanistic psychologists?
Sartre divided existential anxiety into aguish, fear, and forlornness.
________ is the relatively recent branch of psychology that investigates the traits, processes, and social institutions that promote a good and meaningful life.
Which of the following is NOT a concern with the typical strategy used to evaluate the effects of Rogerian psychotherapy?
According to the hierarchy of needs, people must feel that they belong before they can self-actualize.
Nietzsche argued that the most honorable response to the dilemmas of existence is to
Positive psychologists usually argue that true happiness comes from overcoming important challenges. This idea is quite similar to Sartreâ€™s conception of
Pessimism might belong in the attributes considered by positive psychologists.
Research suggests individuals high in which personality attribute are most likely to experience flow?
An individual who seeks to maximize gain by making the most money possible is following a satisficing goal.
Which of the following ad slogans is more likely to come from an individualistic culture than from a collectivist culture?
According to the text, which of the following is considered to have a collectivist-vertical society?
Studies of endogenous personality descriptors in China and Spain seem to suggest that there are ________ factors in each lexicon.
Research suggests that Americans may be more likely to recall the larger context of pictures compared to individuals from Japan.
Singapore is both ethnically heterogeneous and culturally tight.
According to the text, what term describes cultures that have only a few proscribed goals and a few ways to achieve these goals?
Indians prefer to place an X next to the part of the form that does NOT apply.
Psychologists who are concerned that the results of contemporary empirical research may not apply to all people everywhere are questioning the ________ of those results.
If less than 2 percent of a countryâ€™s population exhibits left-handedness, then cross-cultural researchers might say that the culture is likely a(n) ________ culture.
Members from which country would be most likely to self-enhance?
Which value would most likely be associated with a collectivist culture?
Some research suggests that thinking in Asians as opposed to Americans is more disrupted by talking.
Some cross-cultural researchers compare average levels of traits across cultures. For example, Chueng and Song (1989) found that, compared to an American sample, Chinese research participants generally described themselves as higher on
According to the textbook, what behavior led to a Danish motherâ€™s arrest in New York?
Judgments of cultural complexity as opposed to cultural tightness are fairly straightforward.
According to the text, what two factors are hypothesized to influence whether a culture is high in tightness?
Countries with low average levels of self-esteem also tend to have high rates of
Banduraâ€™s efficacy expectation is a belief about
Which theorist had a substantial intellectual influence on Mischelâ€™s ideas about the cognitive-affective personality system?
Strict behaviorists believe that thoughts and emotions are important to study.
Opponent processes in the body can counteract some of the effects of depressants.
According to Dollard and Miller, ________ provides the motivating force for human behavior.
According to Dollard and Miller, ________ drives include drives for food, water, physical comfort, sexual gratification, and so on, whereas ________ drives include drives for love, prestige, money, and power.
According to Mischel, what is the most important aspect of personality and cognition?
Based on recent research, what appears to be TRUE regarding peopleâ€™s ability to forecast emotional reactions to major events?
It has been suggested that chronic anxiety is the result of
If a particular song frequently precedes your being touched by your significant other, then eventually hearing the song will make you think of being touched by him or her. This is the basic idea behind
Perhaps the biggest limitation associated with the use of punishment is that
When a new mobile is first hung over baby Jessicaâ€™s crib, she looks at it frequently. After several weeks pass, she spends hardly any time looking at the mobile. Jessica has become ________ to the mobile.
E. L. Thorndike proposed that people learn to do things faster and more efficiently when the effects of the behavior are negative.
Which of Banduraâ€™s ideas has proven to be the most influential?
According to Dollard and Millerâ€™s approach-avoidance conflict theory, the tendency to approach a positive goal is stronger than the tendency to avoid a negative goal.
Most people use punishment effectively.
The Bobo doll studies of aggression demonstrated that
The element of reciprocal determinism that departs most significantly from classic behaviorism is the idea that
If you are frustrated because your coworkerâ€™s performance prevented you from getting the end-of-the-year bonus you expected, Dollard and Miller would predict that you respond to this frustration with
A ________ is a desired end-state, and ________ are the means that the individual uses to achieve this end-state.
Goals that are unique to the individuals pursuing them are called ________ goals.
Which of the following is the NOT one of the basic stages of emotion?
Freudâ€™s secondary process thinking resembles Epsteinâ€™s rational system
The memories of chronically hostile individuals as opposed to chronically agreeable individuals show no differences.
In cognitive-experiential self theory, the ________ system dominates when you are emotional and the ________ system dominates when you are calm.
A bicultural Asian American who has just been primed with the image of a dragon is more likely to interpret ambiguous symbols in what way?
People with more generally negative views of others are more accurate in their person perceptions.
A person with a developmental goal will most likely respond to failure with a(n) ________ pattern of behavior.
What measurement instrument assesses the extent to which people are relatively defensive in their perception of potentially threatening information?
Extraversion is associated with happiness but neuroticism is not related to happiness.
What goal-related term describes the ongoing motivation that persists in the mind until the goal is either attained or abandoned?
Steven believes that intelligence and ability can change with experience. Steven has a(n) ________ theory of ability.
There is no evidence that happiness leads to good outcomes; rather, evidence suggests that happiness is a result of good outcomes.
Mrs. Khoury enjoys running the office. She likes telling other employees what to do and strives to be promoted to vice president of her company. According to McClellandâ€™s view of motivations, Mrs. Khoury is high in ________ motivation.
What term refers to the idea that the concepts that have been recently activated in the mind influence oneâ€™s perceptions of the world?
Research has examined the degree to which individualsâ€™ optimistic and pessimistic strategies persist across various contexts. The results of this research suggest that
Shy people might have defense mechanisms that work too well.
Jackâ€™s friends donâ€™t think he is very smart; however, Jack thinks that he is quite intelligent. Jack would most likely be considered high in which personality dimension?
According to the text, one study found the ________ measures of shyness predicted spontaneous expressions of shyness better than ________ measures of shyness.
â€œThe Little Engine that Couldâ€ provides an illustration of which self-related concept?
Which stage of the realistic accuracy model has the fewest limitations when it comes to making self-judgments?
Sarah moved from a small town in Ohio to New York City and has since learned a lot about herself. According to the realistic accuracy model, she has expanded the ________ stage of judgment.
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of the realistic accuracy model?
What seems to be the connection between accurate self-knowledge and mental health?
Self knowledge can be divided into ________ knowledge and ________ knowledge.
According to self-discrepancy theory, what emotion arises from discrepancies between ought and actual selves?
Procedural knowledge can be taught by reading and listening to lectures.
According to self-discrepancy theory, what emotion arises from discrepancies between ideal and actual selves?
What might happen to someone who is high in self-consciousness and primed with words related to stereotypes about senior citizens?
The overall opinion of the self is called
Which methods are appropriate for identifying self-schema?
What emotions are thought to occur when a stranger harms aspects of your me-self?
A person who habitually avoids social interaction but is unaware of his shyness is said to have ________ knowledge about the self
According to the text, college students from individualistic cultures who failed a test of creativity ________, whereas Japanese students ________.
According to recent work by Carol Dweck, what is one way to change personality?
What is the name of the sixth factor that might be required to fully capture psychopathology in addition to the Big Five domains?
High neuroticism is NOT associated with which personality disorder?
The American Psychological Association publishes the DSM .
According to the textbook, Adolf Hitler exhibited many of the classic signs of what personality disorder?
An individual who truly believes that he or she should be the first person rescued from a burning building exhibits a symptom of which personality disorder?
Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for OCPD?
What term describes the exemplar or ideal mental image associated with a particular category?
Some researchers have suggested that strep throat infections in children are associated with the development of schizoid personality disorder.
What disorder might represent an extreme or exaggerated version of traits associated with conscientiousness?
What term describes the urge to seek erotic stimulation by rubbing up against people in crowded buses?
According to Funderâ€™s classification scheme, what four disorders are characterized by patterns of behavior that interfere with social relationships and can make an individual difficult to be around?
Although the DSM reports that the ________ personality is frequently reported, recent data suggest that it is fairly rare.
Physical illnesses that might be related to mental health appear on which axis of the DSM ?
Someone who relies too heavily on others for making decisions is likely to have which personality disorder?
Severe psychopathologies such as schizophrenia appear on which axis of the DSM ?
Sally has an exaggerated sense of the greatness of her attributes and abilities. A trained observer would say that Sally is high in what personality dimension?
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of B data?
Faking responses in order to influence test results is most difficult on ________ constructed tests.
What does the abbreviation MMPI stand for?
...Dr. Robbins asks his research participants to fill out questionnaires describing their early life. He then obtains copies of their arrest records from the county courthouse. The questionnaires used in Dr. Robbinsâ€™s study would be ________ data, whereas the arrest records would be ________ data.
According to the text, what simple example of L data is considered by clinical psychologists to be a potential indicator of psychopathology?
According to the book Personality and Assessment , a correlation of .30 is impressive.
Dr. Akita is designing a test to measure sociability. She writes items that seem directly and obviously related to sociability, such as â€œI like to go to partiesâ€ and â€œI enjoy the company of other people.â€ Which method of test construction is Dr. Akita using?
Validity is the degree to which a measurement
Which of the following is the best definition of validity
According to the text, which of the following is NOT a threat to the generalizability of personality research?
â€œThere is no such thing as objective reality, only human ideas or perceptions of reality,â€____â€œThe absence of perfect, infallible criteria for truth does not force us to conclude that all interpretations of reality are equally likely to be correct,â€___
What might be an effect of expectancies in real life?
Happiness is associated with what trait?
Personality attributes are rarely linked with mortality risk.
Individuals high in the trait of extraversion tend to die younger than individuals who are lower in extraversion.
A correlation coefficient is a(n) ________ that ranges between ________.
________ data are fairly easily verifiable, concrete, real-life outcomes of possible psychological significance.
Research on expectancy effects has provided a clear estimate of the size of the effect in real life.
Applied psychologists involved in personnel selection are less concerned with error variance than research psychologists.
The p-value tells researchers the probability that a finding will be exactly duplicated.
Individuals with certain traits seem to be attracted to studies of prison life.
How common is shyness?
Psychology 303 100% Correct
If you use the binomial effect size display to evaluate a correlation of .40, you will find that personality traits have a 50 percent chance of accuracy.
your response to the personality test item “I am an intelligent person” would be ___ data, while your score on an intelligence test that reflects the number of problems you got right would be ___ data.
while completing the NEO personality inventory, you answer true to the item “I consider myself a nervous person”. Your response to this item would be an example of ___ data.
in Allport’s 1931 article found in the funder and ozer reader, he asserts that a trait is
the task of an employer who attempts to identify dependable, conscientious, and hard-working job applicants is similar to the task of the ___ psychologist, who attempts to identify and assess individual differences.
which kind of data would probably appeal most to an applied psychologist who is keenly interested in predicting workplace deviance?
it is possible to directly calculate correlation effect sizes from experimental social psychology
which of the following is an objective test
aggreableness is negatively associated with criminal behavior
reliability is ___ condition for validity.
Anderson (1984) found that the quality of information affected the accuracy of personality judgments. According to the results of this study, which kind of information would most likely lead to a social impression that corresponded to the target’s self-assessment?
the stability of individual differences typically increases with age.
a social psychologist who focuses on statistical significance is concerned with ___, whereas a personality researcher who focuses on effect sizes is concerned with ___.
in his book personality and assessment, Mischel argued that
what is the primary criterion for item selection in the empirical method of test construction?
according to the text, what is one of the nonpsychometric functions of projective tests?
what you do may be influenced by how you see yourself and how you are seen by others. This means that your self-perceptions and others’ perceptions have
convergent validation is seldom an effective tool for assessing the validity of personality judgments
cohort effects refer to differences in personality between people of different historical generations
if test scores go down as anxiety goes up, then
psychologists expect to reach a final answer to their research questions
the personality coefficient is similar in size to the situation coefficient
which of the following is NOT one of the concerns associated with the practice of null-hypothesis significance testing?
what is the first step in the empirical method of scale construction
people low in agreeableness tend to have greater risks to their cardiac health
measurements of weight are made on what kind of scale?
at the heart of aggregation is the idea that
a test created using the rational method yields what kind of data?
empirically developed tests have created some serious legal problems for companies that administer such tests to employees or potential hires
a strong handshake is a reliable indicator of honesty
self-fulfilling prophecies are more technically known as
the technical meaning of reliability concerns
Self-monitoring seems to be an important quality of a good personality judge for both men and women
according to the text, if peers based judgments on reputation and not observation, then researchers should find
researchers usually agree about the interpretation of a result
which of the following illustrates converging criteria that could be used to establish the accuracy of a personality judgment
the trait of neuroticism is associated with unhappiness
a researcher constructs a scatter plot and notices that it shows a linear trend such that scores on the X axis increase as scores on the Y axis decrease. The correlation coefficient that describes the relationship between X and Y should therefore be negative
what are the steps in the realistic accuracy model (RAM) of personality judgment
as described in the text, according to some researchers, the TAT measures ___, whereas
as part of a research project, a participant carries a handheld computer (e.g., palm pilot) that signals her at random times throughout the day. at those times, the computer presents a series of questions for her to answer regarding her current activities. This is an example of ___ data.
both correlational studies and experimental studies attempt to measure the associations between variables
according to the text, it is reasonable to first assume that almost all psychological findings lack generalizability
we need to collect clues about personality because
personality psychologists adhering to the ___ approach focus on psychic energy, the workings of the unconscious mind, and the nature and resolution of internal mental conflict
it is only possible to improve personality accuracy at the utilization stage
which of the following attributes seem to be consistently related to being a good judge of personality
according to research that shows a link between a trait’s observability and the accuracy with which it is judged, which of the following traits would be easiest to judge accurately?
the factor analytic technique of test construction is designed to
in current psychological research, men are more likely to participate in studies than women
according to the BIS/BAS two-dimensional model, someone who is high in BIS and high in BAS would be considered?
according to Freud, the internal structure of the mind consists of
the basic developmental task of the phallic stage is
when a Freudian refers to “psychic conflict”, he or she means that one individual’s
adult behavior, according to Horney, is based on efforts
which of the following is TRUE regarding the exotic becomes erotic model of sexual orientation development described in the textbook?
which statement best summarizes psychoanalytic thinking about mental energy?
what book marked the beginning of evolutionary thinking?
the chemicals that are released from the hypothalamus, the gonads, and the adrenal cortex?
what is the best description of the role that testosterone plays in personality?
the smallest level of consciousness in Freud’s topographic model of the mind is the
Alder was interested in neurotic needs
according to the article in the funder and ozer reader, fraternities with higher average testosterone levels tended to be
given Snyder’s description of self-monitoring, you would expect someone who is a low in self-monitor to be ___ than a high self-monitor
the meta-analysis of mean-level changes in personality across the life span suggests which of the following?
the Freudian idea that expressing anger releases energy and therefore makes You has not been empirically supported
Freud thought that anxiety caused by the outside world was more interesting than anxiety that originated because of conflicts within the mind
displacement, condensation, and symbolization are all secondary process think techniques
according to Melanie Klein, the ___ position refers to a child’s desire to
Worship and protect the good parts of an object because they fear losing them.
a scientist who tries to determine how differences in a particular trait are correlated with differences in a particular gene is using what method
what gene seems to be related to the trait of neuroticism
according to Erikson, adolescents are likely to face a(n)
brian and matt both just flunked out of college. Brian is sure he did not flunk and that he really is going to graduate. Matt simply refuses to think about what just happened. Brian is using the defense mechanism of ___ and matt is using ___.
the evolutionary explanation of sex differences in mate selection is that
which statement is TRUE regarding the influence of Freud
low levels of cortisol are associated with which psychological disorder
Freud’s anal stage corresponds to Erikson’s stage of
Freud believed that Leonardo da Vinci’s prolific scientific investigations were subliminations of his frustrated sexual passions
according to Freud, in order for a joke to be funny, the listener must have
morality develops during the phallic stage
if it trait is influenced by genes, then it ought to be more highly correlated across pairs of ___ than across pairs of ___.
Victorians criticized Freud’s theory as too unscientific
hospitalized mental patients tend to get low scores on the self-monitoring scale
according to the object relations theorist D. W. Winnicott, the purpose of a transitional object is
which of the following traits is largely independent of integrity tests?
a researcher using the big five likely adopts the many-trait approach
leaving a disproportionate amount of libido behind at a childhood stage of development is called
two-year-old jonathan knows he is not allowed to have a second piece of candy. When his mother is distracted, he takes another piece out of the candy jar, just to see if he can get away with it. Johnathan is the ___ stage of development
according to the principle of inclusive fitness, a researcher interested in predicting patterns of helping behavior would want to know
which of the following Freudian ideas is NOT supported by modern research
the items on the California Q-set were designed by a team of researchers and practitioners who generated a comprehensive set of terms sufficient to describe people
in the middle age, we experience the psychosocial crisis of ___, according to Erikson
“Freudian slips” are also known as
one criticism of traditional Freudian theory is that it is not parsimonious (or at least parts of it are not parsimonious). This means that is
Kevin is placing a personal ad in the local paper. According to evolutionary predictions about mate selection, what will he most likely mention when describing himself?
according to one survey of employers, seven out of the top eight qualities sought in new employees involved
juan pushed a terrible childhood experience out of his awareness and now is not able to recall it in adulthood. Which defense mechanism is he using?
threats to self-esteem result in realistic anxiety
joe developed a fixation in the phallic stage. When he experiences a great deal of stress at work, joe will likely become
jung’s distinction between people who are oriented outwardly toward the jung’s distinction between people who are oriented outwardly toward the
which of the following is NOT accurate regarding structured interviews
as a person becomes an expert in an area, he or she will begin to ___ to help organize the information
nima moved to the U.S. when she was 5 years old, and she gradually adopted the language, attitudes, and styles of American culture. The process through which nima became Americanized is known as
john argues that a particular culture’s distinctive view of reality simply exists and believes that there is no way to meaningfully address the origin of cultural differences. John seems to subscribe to which philosophical tradition
mike thinks that sitting around contemplating the meaning of existence is a waste of time. He spends his life concentrating on developing his career, building a bigger house for his family, and enjoying himself. Sartre and other existentialists would say that mike is
what disorder might represent an extreme or exaggerated version of traits associated with “marching to a different drummer” or acting original and somewhat idiosyncratically
Salvatore Maddi believed the most severe existential pathology was
a person who know that he is hostile and aloof is said to have ___ knowledge about himself
which childhood illness may have a link to obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
the out group homogeneity bias refers to the tendency to view one’s own group as having members that differ widely from each other while believing individuals from other groups are “all the same”
the highest need proposed by Maslow was
in Pavlov’s famous studies, when the presentation of meat was frequently preceded by the sound of a bell, dogs
suicide and self-mutilation are characteristic of which personality disorder
the idea that all cultural views are equally valid and that it is ethnocentric to think otherwise is called
sally is very concerned with abandonment and her partner’s lack of commitment to their relationship. She is high on which personality dimension
according to the goal circumplex model, goals related to helping one’s community are high on what dimension
the American south has a separate “culture of honor”, distinct from the rest of the U.S., which requires members to be more tolerant of insults
a study in china showed that information about ___ is remembered as well as information about the self
Steven believes that intelligence and ability can change with experience. Steven has a(n) ___ theory of ability
which theorist would most likely make the statement that stress is valuable for optimal psychological development
which two individuals are credited with turning existentialism into a more optimistic view of life?
what country had the highest levels of self-compassion
a culture that stresses that “tall poppies are cut first” might be high in which cultural dimension
researchers have yet to find evidence for the self-reference effect in china
according to distinctions between types of idiographic goals, a ___ is something you think about, whereas a ___ is something you do
the key target for psychotherapy, according to Bandura, is
based on research related to self-determination theory, which individual is likely to report the highest level of well-being
Csikszentimihalyi’s concept of flow is analogous to
bicultural individuals often have difficulty quickly switching cultural frames of reference
___ consists of your biological experiences and ___ consists of your psychological experiences
cross-cultural psychology has examined differences in the way that members of various cultures think. Some research suggests that people from collectivist cultures think___ than those from individualistic cultures
what term refers to Bandura’s idea that the self-system, environmental factors, and behavior are all dynamically interlinked
according to the text, accurate self-knowledge is a hallmark of mental health
positive psychologists usually argue that true happiness comes form overcoming important challenges. This idea is quite similar to Sartre’s conception of
hallucinations are associated with schizoid personality disorder but not schizotypal personality disorder
all languages have terms for traits such as talkative, timid and diligent
dollard and miller view psychological conflict as the result of
when a new mobile is first hung over baby jessica’s crib, she looks at it frequently. After several weeks pass, she spends hardly any time looking at the mobile. Jessica has become ___ to the mobile
according to research and theory about goals, it is most advantageous to have the ability to
men who suffer from histrionic personality disorder might project a hyper masculine attitude and brag about their athletic abilities
knowing how to ride a bike is an example of declarative knowledge
what term describes a person who typically expects the worst so that they can be surprised or even relieved when the worst does no happen
the central idea of humanistic psychology is that one’s conscious experience is less psychologically important than one’s actual behavior
which of the following is NOT a philosophical underpinning of behaviorism
members of asian cultures find it more acceptable to deal with controversial issues in bigger meetings than individuals from the united states
vertical society tend to believe that individuals are importantly different from each other
which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria of OCPD
individuals who are high in the trait of narcissism might seem charming and attractive on the first impression
the basic idea behind empiricism is that
someone who absolutely must have a relationship where they are uncritically accepted is
the purpose of a basic approach (or paradigm) is
personality psychology has a variety of theoretical perspectives that are sometimes seen as competing with each other. Regarding this diversity, a major theme of this textbook is
the unique mandate of personality psychologists is to attempt
personality psychologists adhering to the ___ approach focus on psychic energy, the workings of the unconscious mind, and the nature and resolution of internal mental conflict
in observing human behavior, it is impossible
which of the following is NOT one of the basic approaches to personality
personality psychology emphasizes how people are ___, whereas subfields such as cognitive and social psychology emphasize how people are ___.
___ theories of personality apply the insights and methods derived from the study of perception, memory, and thought to the study of personality
jeff suspects that his roommate’s sexist jokes may indicate that his roommate has some hidden, unconscious hostility toward women or that he feels very insecure around women. Jeff’s analysis suggests a ___ approach to personality.
psychologists following the phenomenological approach
the personality paradigm that focuses on rewards and punishments is know as the ___ paradigm
advocates of any particular basic approach to personality historically
personality is an individual’s characteristic patterns of
which of the following is not part of the psychological triad
personality psychology shares with clinical psychology
personality psychologists who adhere to the ___ approach focus on identifying, conceptualizing, and measuring the ways in which people differ psychologically from one another
what two topics are covered under the phenomenological approach
the trait approach, the behaviorist approach, and the psychoanalytic approach
personality psychology and clinical psychology overlap most often when approaching
the task of an employer who attempts to identify dependable, conscientious, and hard-working job applicants is similar to the task of the ___ psychologist, who attempts to identify and assess individual differences
imagine that a researcher conducts a study and finds a statistically significant correlation between eating pizza and aggression. However, there is no real association between eating pizza and aggression in nature. What kind of error has this researcher made
a personality description of a client by her or his therapist is an example of ___ data
according to the text, the goal of a scientific education is
because jesse’s teacher believes that he is intelligent, she challenges him with extra assignments and generally encourages his curiosity. At the end of the school year, jesse performs better on the school’s achievement test than any other student. Jesse’s enhanced performance was likely due to the
a teacher is mistakenly told that one of his students is intellectually gifted. However, by the end of the year, this student has actually made substantial gains in her standardized test scores. This is an example of what psychological phenomenon
dr. rogers tries to motivate aggression in the laboratory by manipulating the room temperature. If this is the only way that dr. rogers tries to motivate aggression, the results of her studies may lack.
which of the following would be an example of natural B data?
which of the following is the biggest concern that funder has about the use of deception in psychological research
the principle of aggregation holds that random errors often become magnified when averaged together
according to principles described in the text, it would be relatively difficult to create a reliable measure of
what is the goal of the dissertation in the process of scientific education
which formula in psychometrics quantifies the principle of aggregation
according to the text, the tendency of a group of people who lived at a particular time to differ in some way from those who lived earlier or later is called a
which type of data is likely to be the most subjective and judgmental
a researcher wants to evaluate the correlation between extraversion and happiness. What is the null hypothesis in this analysis
psychology is relatively unique among the sciences because it uses the case method
on Friday, terence completes the self-monitoring scale and receives a score of 49. on the following Tuesday, he fills out the scale again and receives a score of 28. terence’s scores on the self-monitoring scale do not appear to be
dr. jones measures aggression by counting the number of times a research participant hits an inflatable “bobo doll”. If this is the only way dr. jones measures aggression, the results of his studies may lack
validity is much easier judge than reliability
the implicit associations test (IAT) yields what kind of data
personality trait measurements are typically made on what kind of scale
it is possible to directly calculate correlation effect sizes from experimental social psychology
your responses to the personality test item “I am an intelligent person” would be ___ data, whereas your score on an intelligence test that reflects the number of problems you got right would be ___ data.
a test created using the empirical method yields what kind of data
the improvement in reliability gained by adding additional “good” test items can be precisely calculated using what formula
according to situationists, the upper limit of personality coefficients is estimated as
measurements of weight are made on what kind of scale
not all items on objective tests are absolutely objective
sally found that neither caffeine nor extraversion predicted problem soving by themselves; however, she found that they both worked together to predict problem soving. This is an example of what kind of an effect
a variable that influences the association between two other variables is called a(n) ___ variable
the person-situation debate reflects deep-seated views about human nature
as described in the text, according to some researchers, the TAT measures ___, whereas questionnaire-based measures predict ___.
funder strongly believes that Mischel conducted an unfair literature review in personality and assessment
when taking a(n) ___ test, a person interprets an ambiguous stimulus in order to express the inner workings of her or his mind
there is a tendency to equate a situationist perspective with a more optimist view of the world
which of the following would be an example of using a moderator variable approach to improve the predictability of behavior from personality
according to the analogy drawn in the text between situational effects on behavior and scud missiles, situations are powerful because they
which of the following is NOT a limitation of the factor analytic approach
individuals high in the trait of extraversion tend to die younger than individuals who are lower in extraversion
which of the following is the strongest situation
how should you act in everyday life according to the “transparent self” theory of psychological health
a strong handshake is a reliable indicator of honesty
the basic reason that research on the accuracy of personality judgments experienced a lengthy hiatus between 1955 and the mid-1980s was that
judgments other people make of your personality are known as
according to the text, what term describes a context where social norms tend to restrict what people do?
which of the following is NOT considered one of the likely reasons that high-expectancy students perform better
which of the following illustrates converging criteria that could be used to establish the accuracy of a personality judgment
research on expectancy effects has provided a clear estimate of the size of the effect in real life
based on recent research, what approach for job interviews might be the best
researchers know a great deal about the characteristics of good judges of personality
according to research that shows a link between a trait’s observability and the accuracy with which it is judged, which of the following traits would be easiest to judge accurately
imagine that judgments of extraversion correlate with the number of parties that people attend over the course of four years of college. Researchers would therefore say these judgments have
participants in a recent study were shown composite faces from targets that scored extremely low or high on personality dimensions and then asked to judge the target. Which two traits had the highest levels of accuracy
to evaluate accuracy in personality judgments, researchers often want to know if personality
which of the following traits would be hardest to judge
in making an overall judgment of your personality, which person should be most accurate
the philosophy of constructivism is widespread in modern intellectual life
which of the following was NOT mentioned as a potential moderator of accuracy
what is another name for ego resiliency
jack block found that 23 year olds who described themselves as being politically conservative were likely to have been described as ___ at age three
the ___ approach to personality usually assumes that all people can be characterized by points on a continuous score of measurement; the ___ approach to personality suggests that people might differ in kind more than in degree
the most important thing to notice about a table of Q-sort correlates is the
sally is seriously depressed at age 18. research using the Q-sort suggests that as a child, sally probably would have been described as
a researcher tries to discover the most important or basic personality traits that exist across people. Which approach is she taking
what the big three traits according to Auke Tellegen
the big five believed to be the orthogonal factors of personality. What does orthogonal mean
a researcher taking the many-triat approach to understanding personality would likely use which of the following measurement instruments
according to the text, sex differences in the personality correlates of the delay of gratification are likely attributable to sex differences in
Erich Fromm was inspired to research authoritarianism because of what historical events
which of the following traits is largely independent of integrity tests
a researcher using the big five likely adopts the many-trait approach
the items in the California Q-set were derived from
according to Eysenck, psychoticicm is a blend of aggressiveness, creativeness and impulsiveness
which of the big five traits appears to be the most difficult to understand
in order to alleviate the effects of bias in employment testing, employers might want to use ___, because they typically do not show racial or ethnic differences
which of the following characteristics is NOT associated with conscientiousness
sally is a strong proponent of the lexical hypothesis. Where would she likely begin her search for the essential traits of personality
typological approaches to personality have demonstrated predictive advantages over trait approaches for predicting behavior
which brain structure seems to play an important role in memory
before brain surgery, elliot was a good father and held a responsible job. After removal of portions of his frontal lobe, elliot’s personality changed in what way
excess cortisol production might be linked to which conditions
nerve fibers that connect nerves to each other are called
according to the somatic marker hypthoesis, specific regions of the brian stroe specific life memories
what symptom is associated with capgras syndrome
a low level of MAO in the blood seems to correlate with sensation seeking and criminal behavior
which brain region secretes several hormones and is located just above the roof of the
chemicals that communicate between neurons are called
norepinephrine is both a neurotransmitter in the brain and a hormone in the body
a general tendency toward excessive behavior has been linked to
a study of the associations between testosterone levels and spectator sports demonstrates that
according to Eysenck’s theory, which type of a person should exhibit the greatest salivation in the lemon juice test
according to the BIS/BAS two-dimensional model, someone who is high in BIS and high in BAS would be considered
in 1966, charles Whitman killed his wife, mother and 14 more people at the university of texas before he was killed by police. An autopsy revealed a tumor affecting Whitman’s
serotonin seems to play a role in the inhibition of behavioral impulses
the differences in brain activity levels in one condition versus another condition in an fMRI experiments is known as
current evidence suggests that Eysenck’s biological theory of extraversion is about half right. which part of the theory has received support
what brain region appears to be important for the abilities to plan ahead, anticipate consequences, and to engage in moral reasoning
the projections from nerves that receive stimulation are called
a gene that produces low levels of ___ activity in conjunction with ___ seems to increase the risk for developing antisocial behavior
a scientist who tries to determine how differences in a particular trait are correlated with differences in a particular gene is using what method
the notion that humans could be improved through selective breeding is called
which piece of evidence was NOT discussed as providing support for Bem’s theory
what term refers to different forms of the same gene
the heritability of IQ is higher in impoverished families than in more economically advantaged
what gene seems to be related to the trait of neuroticism
most epigenetic studies have been conducted with humans
what might be the evolutionary function of crying according to recent research described in the text
what book marked the beginning of evolutionary thinking
according to an evolutionary analysis of reactions to depression, crying is a wasteful use of energy and resources
Literatuurstudie probleemschets opdracht A
Literatuurstudie. Open universiteit Nederland. opdracht B t/m D. afgerond met een 7. Als voorbeeld te gebruiken.
Literatuurstudie opdracht B, C en D
Literatuurstudie. Open universiteit. afgerond samen met opdracht A. met een 7. Is te gebruiken als voorbeeld.
PSY 103 Midterm #1 Review + Questions + Answers (LATEST) : Chapters (1, 2, 14, 15, 16)
Chapter 1: The Science of Psychology in Your Life
Chapters (1, 2, 14, 15, 16)
Research psychologists who take a behavioral perspective are likely to:
The definition of psychology focuses on both ______________ and ______________.
a. behaviors; structures
b. behaviors; mental processes
c. mental processes; functions
d. mental processes; structures
2. To what goal of psychology is “level of analysis” most relevant?
a. explaining what happens
b. describing what happens
c. predicting what will happen
d. controlling what happens
3. If you want to ______________ what will happen, you first must be able to ______________ what will happen.
a. describe; explain
b. describe; control
c. control; predict
d. explain; predict
4. While watching a horror film, Betty suppressed her emotions but Hilda did not. You would expect Betty to eat ______________ comfort food than Hilda and ______________ non-comfort food.
a. more; the same amount of
b. more; less
c. the same amount of; more
d. less; more
5. Who founded the first laboratory that was devoted to experimental psychology?
a. William James
b. Wilhelm Wundt
c. Max Wertheimer
d. John Dewey
6. A researcher tells you that her main goal is to understand mental experiences as the combination of basic components. It is most likely that she finds the historical roots of her research in
b. the humanist perspective.
d. the evolutionary perspective.
7. Who was the first woman to serve as president of the American Psychological Association?
a. Margaret Washburn
b. Anna Freud
c. Jane Goodall
d. Mary Calkins
8. Two professors at universities in Boston and Mumbai are collaborating on a research project to determine how their students in the United States and India respond to the same reasoning problems. It’s likely that they take a ______________ perspective in their research.
9. The ______________ perspective draws on the ways in which human mental abilities serve adaptive purposes.
10. When you’re home with the flu, you spend a lot of time watching CourtTV. You weren’t surprised to see a ______________ psychologist testifying during a trial.
11. What type of question would a cognitive psychologist be likely to ask?
a. Why do children sometimes have imaginary friends?
b. Why do some students get sick every time they have a major exam?
c. How can we design a keyboard for a computer that allows people to type more quickly?
d. How are bilingual individuals able to switch between their two languages?
12. Which type of psychologist is least likely to focus on genetic aspects of human psychology?
a. industrial–organizational psychologists
b. developmental psychologists
c. personality psychologists
d. biological psychologists
13. Individuals with advanced degrees in psychology are most likely to be working in
a. academic settings.
b. hospitals and clinics.
c. business and government.
d. independent practice.
14. In assessments of violence risk, ______________ counts as a dynamic factor.
b. substance abuse
c. stability of family upbringing
d. age at first conviction
15. In what phase of P4QR should you try to relate the textbook material to your prior knowledge about a topic?
Chapter 2: Research Made in Psychology
• 1. A(n) ______________ is an organized set of concepts that explains a phenomenon or set of phenomena.
c. operational definition
• 2. When articles are submitted to most journals, they are sent out to experts for detailed analyses. This process is known as
b. informed consent.
c. peer review.
d. control procedures.
• 3. Professor Peterson is testing the hypothesis that people will cooperate less when a lot of people are in a group. In the experiment he plans, he will vary the number of people in each group. That will be his
a. placebo control.
b. independent variable.
c. double-blind control.
d. dependent variable.
• 4. Rahul is serving as a research assistant. In the first phase of the experiment, Rahul gives each participant a can of cola or a can of caffeine-free cola. In the second phase of the experiment, Rahul times the participants with a stopwatch while they play a video game. It sounds like this study is lacking a(n)
a. placebo control.
b. correlational design.
c. operational definition.
d. double-blind control.
• 5. Matt is participating in a two-day experiment. On Day 1, he takes a memory test after running on a treadmill for 2 minutes. On Day 2, he takes a similar test after running for 10 minutes. The experimenters plan to compare Matt’s performance on the two tests. This sounds like a
a. within-subjects design.
b. double-blind control.
c. between-subjects design.
d. correlational design.
• 6. Shirley visits an antique store. The owner explains to her that the smaller an object is, the more he can charge for it. This is an example of a
a. correlation coefficient.
b. negative correlation.
c. positive correlation.
d. placebo effect.
• 7. Sally is about to travel from New York to Chicago. Although she prefers to drive, she has decided to get on an airplane. Sally reads a pair of articles about the relative safety of the two types of travel. She concludes that the one that favors air travel is considerably more valid. This sounds like an example of
b. expectancy effects.
c. informed consent.
d. wishful thinking.
• 8. Dr. Paul is developing a new measure of hunger. He says, “I need a measure that will accurately predict how much food people will eat in their next meal.” Dr. Paul’s statement is about the ______________ of the measure.
a. operational definition
• 9. Giovanna is worried that the results of her experiment may be affected by her participants’ desire to provide favorable impressions of themselves. It sounds as if she might be using ______________ measures.
• 10. Ben believes that men are more likely to arrive late to classes than are women. To test this hypothesis most effectively, Ben should use
a. a within-subjects design.
b. a correlational design.
c. self-report measures.
d. naturalistic observation.
• 11. Andrew wishes to test the hypothesis that people give more freely to charities when the weather is pleasant. To test this hypothesis, Andrew is likely to make use of
a. double-blind controls.
b. expectancy effects.
c. laboratory observation.
d. archival data.
• 12. Before you participate in an experiment, the researcher should provide you with information about procedures, potential risks, and expected benefits. This process is called
a. a risk/gain assessment.
b. informed debriefing.
c. informed consent.
d. operational definitions.
• 13. Which one of these is not among the three R’s that ethicists suggest should guide research using nonhuman animals?
• 14. Always search for ______________ explanations to the obvious ones proposed.
• 15. You ask people to respond to scenarios that describe the risk associated with excess cell-phone usage. You expect people to give the highest risk estimates when they read that “______________ people suffer serious vocal chord damage.”
a. 10 of every 100
b. 10 percent of
c. 20 of every 100
d. 20 percent of
Chapter 16: Social Psychology
• 1. Grace wants to help her friend Charlie avoid the fundamental attribution error. She suggests that he focus on _______ causes of behaviors.
• 2. Which of these statements is not consistent with a self-serving bias?
a. I lost because the other guy was probably cheating.
b. I lost because it was too hot in the room.
c. I won because I’m a genius.
d. I won because I got lucky.
• 3. Self-fulfilling prophecies may be modest with teachers in classrooms because
a. most students perform better than their teachers expect them to perform.
b. teachers usually have accurate expectations about how students will perform.
c. teachers rarely have expectations about students.
d. students do not allow teachers to treat them differently from their classmates.
• 4. In the Stanford Prison Experiment, the guards often abused the prisoners. This result suggests that
a. people seek situations in which they can indulge their aggressive impulses.
b. some people are born to play the role of guards.
c. only aggressive people are willing to assume the role of prison guard.
d. social roles have an important influence on how people behave.
• 5. Solomon Asch’s experiments on conformity demonstrate the impact of _______ in group situations.
a. norm crystallization
b. social rules
c. normative influence
d. informational influence
• 6. In Milgram’s experiments on obedience, many people protested that they didn’t want to give any more shocks. After that happened,
a. the experimenter told them the study was over.
b. most participants asked to leave the experiment.
c. most participants continued to administer shocks.
d. the experimenter asked to decrease shocks.
• 7. When a company hires a celebrity to endorse a product, it is likely hoping that most consumers will follow the _______ route to persuasion and engage in _______ elaboration.
a. peripheral; low
b. central; high
c. peripheral; high
d. central; low
• 8. Sam chooses desserts for himself and for his friend Randy. Both desserts turn out to be duds. If Sam has a(n) _______ sense of self, you’d expect him to experience the most cognitive dissonance with respect to the dessert he chose for _______.
a. independent; Randy
b. interdependent; himself
c. interdependent; Randy
d. dependent; himself
• 9. Oliver is trying to change his friend Stan’s stereotype that women aren’t as funny as men. They watch a TV special with a series of women doing comedy routines. Do you think Stan’s stereotype will change?
a. Yes, because he will appreciate Oliver’s effort on his behalf.
b. No, because he will discount information that is inconsistent with his stereotype.
c. No, because he will convince Stan that the stereotype is true.
d. Yes, because he will learn a new stereotype from the TV special.
• 10. Which of these statements suggests that Carmen is exploiting similarity to get Perry to like her more?
a. “Did you know that we’re both Libras?”
b. “I really enjoy spending time with you.”
c. “Would you like me to get you the newspaper?”
d. “Your new haircut looks terrific.”
• 11. Which statement is not correct?
a. Companionate love is associated with life satisfaction.
b. Most relationships have more passionate love at the outset.
c. Companionate love is characterized by less intensity but greater intimacy.
d. There is little passionate love in long-term relationships.
• 12. During a job interview, Juliet subtly mimicked the interviewer’s gestures. It sounds like Juliet was trying to use _______ to improve the likelihood that she would get the job.
a. norm crystallization
b. the reciprocity norm
c. the chameleon effect
d. cognitive dissonance
• 13. According to the frustration-aggression hypothesis, in which of these situations is Brett most likely to act in an aggressive fashion?
a. Brett has an important job interview, but he’s stuck in a traffic jam.
b. Brett’s girlfriend yelled at him all morning for being mean to her.
c. Brett hates the song playing on his car radio.
d. Brett thinks his boss has been monitoring the websites he visits.
• 14. With respect to bystander intervention, it is typically least important that bystanders must
a. notice danger in the emergency.
b. label events as an emergency.
c. feel responsibility in the situation.
d. consider themselves to be helpful people.
• 15. If you want to increase the likelihood that people will continue to volunteer in the future, which of these measures would you not want to try?
a. Give T-shirts to identify people as volunteers.
b. Have people start to volunteer as a mandatory assignment.
c. Help people cope with distressing aspects of the volunteer work.
d. Determine the motives people have for volunteering.
Chapter 14: Psychological Disorders
• 1. Comorbidity refers to circumstances in which an individual
a. cannot be accurately diagnosed using DSM-IV-TR.
b. has a neurotic disorder that cannot be easily cured.
c. has a psychotic disorder that includes a fear of death.
d. experiences more than one psychological disorder at the same time.
• 2. Professor Hexter believes that unconscious conflicts often cause psychological disorders. Which approach to psychopathology does Professor Hexter use?
• 3. Analyses of legal records suggest that the use of the insanity defense is quite _______ and the probability of it succeeding is quite _______.
a. rare; low
b. rare; high
c. common; low
d. common; high
• 4. For binge eating disorder, which criterion is still being researched as a potential part of the diagnosis?
a. regular episodes of binge eating without purges
b. a loss of control during binges
c. binges causing great distress
d. undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation
• 5. For over a year, Jane has felt anxious or worried throughout the day. It sounds as though Jane is suffering from
a. panic disorder.
b. generalized anxiety disorder.
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
• 6. What attribution style puts people at risk for depression?
• 7. When something bad happens, Chris spends a lot of time ruminating about the problem. Based on this behavior, you think it is
a. more likely that Chris is a man.
b. equally likely that Chris is a man or a woman.
c. likely that Chris will develop a specific phobia.
d. more likely that Chris is a woman.
• 8. You are trying to assess the probability that Paula will develop major depressive disorder. You would be least concerned if she inherited _______ of the 5-HTTLPR serotonin gene.
a. two short versions
b. two long versions
c. one short and one long version
d. one or more short versions
• 9. Nadine alternates between yelling at Tricia and begging her to remain friends. Tricia is convinced that Nadine suffers from _______ personality disorder.
• 10. To diagnose conversion disorder, you’d try to find _______ that preceded the appearance of symptoms.
a. a serious physical illness
b. psychological conflict or stress
c. a visit to a medical doctor
d. both pain and gastrointestinal complaints
• 11. Although Eve doesn’t have any organic dysfunction, she often forgets important personal experiences. This could be an instance of
a. dissociative amnesia.
c. somatization disorder.
d. dependent personality disorder.
• 12. Which of these is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
b. incoherent language
d. social withdrawal
• 13. Which of these behaviors would not generally support a diagnosis of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?
a. Manfred blurts out answers during class activities.
b. Manfred loses his toys and school assignments.
c. Manfred squirms and fidgets in the classroom.
d. Manfred cries when other children tease him.
• 14. Professor Wyatt believes that 1-year-old Brian is at risk for autistic disorder. The professor might observe Brian to determine whether he
a. fails to respond to his name.
b. can walk without assistance.
c. responds appropriately to loud noises.
d. shows smooth pursuit with his eyes.
• 15. As part of an introductory psychology class, a professor has her students interview people who have recovered from psychological disorders. This exercise should
a. prompt the students to be more affected by the stigma of mental illness.
b. have no impact on the students’ experience of stigma.
c. prompt the students to be less affected by the stigma of mental illness.
d. decrease the probability that students would seek treatment for mental illness.
Chapter 15: Therapies for Psychological Disorders
• 1. When Sonja begins treatment, her therapist focuses on her inner conflicts, which he believes remain unresolved. It seems that Sonja’s therapist takes a _______ approach.
• 2. Which of these topics would you be least likely to hear about in a lecture on deinstitutionalization?
c. readmission rates
d. violent crime
• 3. In psychodynamic therapy, _______ refers to a patient’s inability or unwillingness to discuss certain topics.
• 4. Research on repressed memories suggests that
a. recovered memories are never accurate.
b. people’s memories are not subject to therapists’ influence.
c. some memories of abuse are implanted by therapists.
d. most memories are subject to repression.
• 5. If Roland undergoes _______, he should expect to have a strong noxious stimulus paired with stimuli to which he is attracted.
a. systematic desensitization
b. behavioral rehearsal
c. participant modeling
d. aversion therapy
• 6. Every time Janice provides a urine sample that is drug free, she gets vouchers with which she can purchase items she enjoys. This treatment is a form of
a. systematic desensitization.
b. contingency management.
c. participant modeling.
• 7. People can learn the process of _______ to change negative self-statements into positive coping statements.
a. social learning
c. cognitive restructuring
• 8. You hear a therapist talking about how hard he works to communicate unconditional regard. You suspect that he is a _______ therapist.
• 9. In your introductory psychology class, you watch a movie clip of an individual in therapy addressing an empty chair as if it were his abusive boss. This clip demonstrates _______ therapy.
• 10. The particular focus of _______ therapy will often be on poor patterns of communication.
• 11. _______ drugs largely have their impact in the brain by changing the function of the neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine.
• 12. In clinical research, _______ proven effective at relieving the symptoms of depression.
a. only ECT has
b. only rTMS has
c. neither ECT nor rTMS have
d. both ECT and rTMS have
• 13. _______ therapy is the type of treatment least likely to provide relief from major depressive disorder.
c. Cognitive behavioral
• 14. When prevention efforts are intended to prevent relapse, it is called _______ prevention.
• 15. Because of the relative anonymity of interactions over the Internet, clients’ interactions with therapists may show _______.
b. greater embarrassment
Questions Exam #1
1. If someone tells you that they are a psychologist, what do you know about their day to day job?
a. They diagnose and treat psychological disorders.
b. They do research about human behavior.
c. They learn about how the brain works.
d. Psychology is a diverse profession, so it is hard to say without knowing this person’s specialty.
2. A company is looking to hire a psychologist to help improve employee morale and productivity. Which type of psychologist is specifically trained to help with this issue in the workplace?
a. A clinical psychologist
b. A biological psychologist
c. An I-O psychologist
d. A cognitive-psychologist
3. A psychologist is mostly likely to be a consultant on a court case for which of the following reasons?
a. To assess the mental state of the lawyers
b. To predict the behavior of the jury
c. To convince the accused to plead insanity
d. To testify about the accuracy of eyewitness testimony
4. You attend a talk in the psychology department, and the speaker says, “Psychological research today is largely misguided. We need to spend less time watching brains and more time watching people!” This professor likely studies psychology using what perspective?
a. Humanistic perspective
b. Behaviorist perspective
c. Cognitive perspective
d. Socio-cultural perspective
5. When psychological researchers are ready to put their hypotheses to the test, they rely on:
b. common sense
c. the scientific method
d. subjective judgments.
6. A researcher is interested in studying verbal aggression in adolescents. A key variable in this study is the tendency of using curse words. Which of the following is an appropriate example of an operational definition of this variable?
a. The participant’s response on a questionnaire asking about cursing.
b. The number of curses uttered in a 20 minute period during a lab visit.
c. A report by a parent about their belief regarding their child’s cursing habits.
d. All of the above are examples of operational definitions of “tendency to curse”
7. A researcher is testing the hypothesis that in order for caffeine to be most effective, a person must know that they are consuming it. Fatigued participants are randomly assigned to drink 8 oz. of regular coffee or 8 oz. of caffeine-free coffee. Half of the participants given each drink are correctly informed about the caffeine content of their beverage, the other half are misinformed (i.e. they are told the coffee is decaf when it is not, or vice versa). The type of coffee and the information about it represents what in this experiment?
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Random assignment
8. A researcher found a positive correlation between chocolate eating and reported happiness. Which of the following would be an accurate way of describing this result?
a. Eating chocolate causes people to become happier.
b. Increased chocolate eating is associated with increased happiness.
c. Increased happiness causes people to eat more chocolate.
d. Time is related to increased levels of happiness.
9. The purpose of running a double-blind experiment is to:
a. Remove experimenter bias
b. Remove participant bias
c. Remove experimenter and participant bias
d. Study vision
10. Which of the following is an example of a naturalistic observation
a. Sitting in the student center and taking notes on people’s eating habits
b. Bringing people into a lab and asking them about their eating habits
c. Going to the student center and asking people about their eating habits
d. All of the above are examples of naturalistic observation
11. Case studies are important for the science of psychology because
a. They allow researchers to publish lots of papers because they only require one subject.
b. They are the only true way to study abnormality.
c. They allow researchers to examine situations that would be unethical to produce in the lab.
d. They generate detailed descriptions of one person or a small group of people that tend to be highly generalizable.
12. On your drive to campus this morning, someone ran a red light and cut you off. Your immediate reaction is that this person is clearly rude, inconsiderate, and a terrible driver. This type of reaction is known as:
a. The self-serving bias
b. The fundamental attribution error
c. A self-fullfilling prophecy
d. The truth
13. Even though you don’t like the color red, you wear red pants, a red shirt, and paint your face red so that you fit in with your new friends at the Stony Brook football game. What processes are most likely to be driving your conformity in this situation?
a. Collegiality processes
b. Informational influence processes
c. Polarization processes
d. Normative influence processes
14. Solomon Asch studied conformity. In his classic studies, participants had to make judgments about various things while in the presence of others. The results of his experiments suggest that:
a. People are not entirely swayed by normative influence (i.e. they act independently).
b. People sometimes conform, even when it seems obvious that they should not.
c. Some people always conform, and others never conform.
d. All of the above are supported by Asch’s work.
15. After attending social event with students from Stony Brook and Hofstra, you are asked to fill out a short survey about how much you enjoyed interacting with various people at the event. On average, Stony Brook students rated each other as more pleasant as compared to their peers from Hofstra. This is a demonstration of:
a. Fundamental attribution error
c. Self-serving bias
d. In-group/out-group bias
16. Which statement accurately describes the experience of love throughout the course of a relationship?
a. All relationships always start out as passionate love and transition into compassionate love.
b. Long-term relationships are rarely passionate.
c. Many relationships start out with passionate love and gradually transition to compassionate love.
d. If you don’t feel compassionate love in your relationship after 3 months, it is not real love.
17. Choosing not to help someone who may be in need of assistance because there happen to be other people are around who could help (i.e. a busy city street) describes what concept?
a. Diffusion of responsibility
c. Prosocial behavior
18. The DSM is a diagnostic system used by mental health professionals. Which of the following is NOT a primary benefit of a useful diagnostic system?
a. It provides a common shorthand language.
b. It contributes to an understanding of causality.
c. It provides a helpful structure for treatment planning.
d. It accurately labels people, resulting in stigmatization.
19. A person is diagnosed with both Major Depression Disorder and General Anxiety Disorder. This is an example of what phenomenon?
a. Double disorder
c. Axis co-diagnosing
20. Which of the following is NOT a central understanding of the sociocultural perspective on psychopathology?
a. The threshold at which a behavior is considered problematic will depend in part on cultural context.
b. Behaviors may be interpreted in different ways in different cultures.
c. Cultural circumstances may bring about distinctive types or subtypes of psychopathology.
d. Certain cultures will never experience certain disorders.
21. When diagnosing a client with panic disorder, the therapist must specify if agoraphobia is or is not present. What is agoraphobia?
a. A phobic fear of spiders
b. An extreme fear of being in public places or open spaces
c. An example of flashbacks in post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
d. A synonym for the manic phase in bipolar disorder
22. Which of the following are NOT criteria used to label abnormal behavior?
a. Elevated laboratory tests
b. Distress or disability
d. Statistical rarity
23. Mary is very fearful she will act in an embarrassing way at an upcoming party. What disorder does Mary most likely have?
a. Antisocial personality disorder
b. Social phobia
c. Major depressive disorder
24. PTSD (post traumatic stress disorder) is a consequence of traumatic events. What is one symptom people with PTSD commonly experience?
a. Catatonia (subtypes of schizophrenia)
b. Compulsions (OCD)
c. Trichotillomania (picking hair obsessively, not something you need to know)
25. When trying to identify the cause of a person’s depression, a behavioral psychologist would most likely focus on:
a. Negative cognitive sets, or patterns of perceiving the world
b. The effects of the amount of positive reinforcement and punishments a person receives
c. Unconscious conflicts and hostile feelings (psychodynamic)
d. Levels of chemical messengers in the brain (pharmacological, biomedical)
26. Rachel believes she has germs on her hands and experiences intense urges to wash her them. She begins to do so in a ritualistic fashion. In this scenario, the urge to wash is a(n) _________ and the act of washing is a _________.
a. Obsession, compulsion (compulsion is what a person does to alleviate an obsession – the urge)
b. Compulsion, obsession
c. Phobia, compulsion
d. Compulsion, stress disorder
27. Some cognitive psychologists theorize that the gender difference in depression is due to ___________, a tendency to focus obsessively on problems.
c. Delusional thinking
d. Disordered mood
28. Ahmed becomes convinced that his stomachaches prove he has a tumor growing in his stomach, even though doctors have said he is fine. Ahmed may suffer from:
a. Catatonia, a subtype of schizophrenia
b. Hypochondriasis , a somatoform disorder (since doctors can’t diagnose, you know it would be relating to this answer)
c. Medical phobia, an anxiety disorder (tempting, but not defined specifically)
d. Autism, a developmental disorder
29. Which of the following is an example of the consequences of stigma due to mental illness?
a. Lucy receives disability payments due to her depression
b. Michael’s family find out about his eating disorder and attend family therapy with him
c. Larry loses his job after his employer learned he was hospitalized for bipolar disorder
d. Mariah has trouble holding a job because she has schizophrenia
30. There are four primary goals in the therapeutic process. The first three are:
1. Reaching a diagnosis
2. Proposing a probable etiology
3. Making a prognosis of course of problem with and without treatment
What is the fourth goal?
a. Discovering the cause of the disorder
b. Prescribing and carrying out treatment
d. Analysis of unconscious inner conflicts
31. Dimitri’s therapist helps him gain insight into the unresolved conflicts across his lifetime that may have caused his negative symptoms. His therapist is using which of the following approaches to therapy?
32. Deinstitutionalization is the recent shift to treat mental health issues outside of inpatient hospital settings. What is one of the unexpected consequences of deinstitutionalization?
a. Slower recovery rates
b. Higher incidence of mental illness in women
c. More people with mental illness becoming homeless
d. Higher rates of hospitalization in children
33. In psychoanalysis, the therapeutic approach developed by Sigmund Freud, the primary procedure used to probe the unconscious and release repressed information is:
a. Free association (specifically the approach used to probe the unconscious)
b. Participant modeling
c. Dream analysis
d. Contingency management
34. A psychoanalyst is concerned about her negative feelings toward a client. The client reminds her of her father, with whom she had a bad relationship in childhood. In psychoanalysis, this phenomenon is called:
b. Countertransference (this example is talking about the person giving the therapy)
c. Free association
35. The central therapeutic principle in exposure therapy is that exposure permits:
36. Exposure therapies have proved to be highly effective for treating _______ disorders.
37. ______ therapists focus on teaching clients to see the “shoulds” and “musts” that are controlling their lives and preventing them from living how they would like.
a. Cognitive behavioral therapist
b. Rational emotive (emotions are associated with these shoulds and musts)
38. What type of therapy seeks to establish an atmosphere of unconditional positive regard, or nonjudgmental acceptance and respect for the client?
c. Client-centered (example explains fundamental aspects of client centered therapy)
39. What do SSRIs, a type of medication often prescribed for depression, do in the brain?
a. Reduce the slower electrical waves in the brain, known as alpha waves
b. Increase electrical activity in the cerebellum
c. Reduce the reuptake of the chemical messenger serotonin
d. Shut down the dopaminergic system
40. Which of the following is NOT true of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
a. It has proven generally successful at reducing symptoms of depression
b. It produces side effects, such as amnesia and temporary disorientation
c. It is used as a first line of treatment for depression
d. It consists of applying weak electrical current to the scalp until a seizure occurs
41. What is an example of an important “common factor” that is present in successful therapies?
a. Pharmacological treatments
b. A relationship of trust, warmth, and acceptance between the client and the therapist
c. Operant conditioning techniques
d. Laboratory tests, such as blood draws, to identify initial problems
42. A _______ approach to treating a client would be to help him or her become more self-actualized, while a _______ approach would be to focus on changing the physiological aspects of mental illness through, for example, medication.
a. Cognitive, depressive
b. Psychodynamic, trauma-focused
c. CBT (Cognitive behavior therapy), pharmacological