Walden University NURS 6501 Quiz 2.docx
Walden University NURS 6501 Quiz
QUESTION 11. A nurse recalls an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is:a.Bronchial asthmab.Contact dermatitisc.Serum sicknessd.Rheumatoid arthritis1 points QUESTION 21. A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:a.Immunodeficiencyb.Autoimmunityc.Anaphylaxisd.Tissue-specific hypersensitivity1 points QUESTION 31. When a patient presents at the emergency department for an allergic reaction, the nurse recognizes the most severe consequence of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is:a.Urticariab.Hivesc.Anaphylaxisd.Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)1 points QUESTION 41. A 5-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with recurring respiratory infections. A possible cause of this condition is:a.Hypergammaglobulinemiab.Increased maternal IgGc.Immune insufficiencyd.Decreased maternal antibody breakdown, resulting in hyposensitivity1 points QUESTION 51. When histamine is released in the body, which of the following responses would the nurse expect?a.Bronchial dilationb.Edemac.Vasoconstrictiond.Constipation1 points QUESTION 61. A 65-year-old female is diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer. She has developed muscle wasting. Which of the following substances would be produced in large quantities to eliminate the tumor cells and cause muscle wasting?a.Interleukin-6b.Eosinophilsc.Tumor necrosis factord.Platelets1 points QUESTION 71. When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as:a.A reduced immune response found in most pathologic statesb.A normal immune response to an infectious agentc.An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigend.Antigenic desensitization1 points QUESTION 81. Which of the following hormones activates adrenergic receptors?a.Oxytocinb.Prolactinc.Epinephrined.Somatotropin1 points QUESTION 91. While planning care, a nurse recalls seasonal allergic rhinitis is expressed through:a.IgE-mediated reactionsb.Tissue-specific reactionsc.Antigen-antibody complexesd.Type II hypersensitivity reactions1 points QUESTION 101. While planning care for children with cancer, which information should the nurse remember? Most childhood cancers originate from the:a.Placentab.Environmentc.Mesodermal germ layerd.Neural tube1 points QUESTION 111. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?a.Autoimmuneb.Anaphylaxisc.Alloimmuned.Allergic1 points QUESTION 121. A child fell off the swing and scraped the right knee. The injured area becomes painful. What else will the nurse observe upon assessment?a.Vasoconstriction at injured siteb.Decreased RBC concentration at injured sitec.Pale skin at injured sited.Edema at injured site1 points QUESTION 131. A 10-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting wheezing and difficulty breathing. History reveals that both of the child’s parents suffer from allergies. Which of the following terms would be used to classify the child?a.Desensitizedb.Atopicc.Hyperactived.Autoimmune1 points QUESTION 141. A 30-year-old male is having difficulty breathing and has been spitting blood. He reports that he began experiencing this reaction after cleaning his pigeons’ cages. Testing reveals he is suffering from allergic alveolitis. Which of the following is he experiencing?a.Serum sicknessb.Raynaud phenomenonc.Antibody-dependent cytotoxicityd.Arthus reaction1 points QUESTION 151. A patient has a disease state that results from the secretion of toxins by bacteria. Which medical diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart?a.Malariab.Tetanusc.Smallpoxd.Hepatitis1 points QUESTION 161. During inflammation, the liver is stimulated to release plasma proteins, collectively known as:a.Opsoninsb.Acute phase reactantsc.Antibodiesd.Phagolysosome1 points QUESTION 171. A 3-year-old is making play cakes in a sandbox and is eating the play cakes. The sand was also being used by cats as a litter box and was contaminated with toxoplasmosis. Which of the following would most likely also be present?a.Granuloma formationb.Degranulationc.Blood clotsd.Exudate production1 points QUESTION 181. A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia (lung infection). Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of this advanced inflammatory response?a.Serousb.Purulentc.Hemorrhagicd.Fibrinous1 points QUESTION 191. A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain. Testing reveals a peptic ulcer. Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is of concern for this patient?a.Gastric cancerb.Leukemiac.Lung cancerd.Adenocarcinoma of the colon1 points QUESTION 201. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?a.Reverse transcriptase inhibitorsb.Protease inhibitorsc.Entrance inhibitorsd.Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)1 points QUESTION 211. A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?a.Eosinophilsb.Neutrophilsc.Leukotrienesd.Monocytes1 points QUESTION 221. A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla. He experiences elevated blood pressure, pupil dilation, “goose bumps,” and increased anxiety. Which of the following hormones is the predominant one released by the tumor?a.Antidiuretic hormoneb.Acetylcholinec.Norepinephrined.Cortisol1 points QUESTION 231. A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage:a.1b.2c.3d.41 points QUESTION 241. An infant develops a fever secondary to a bacterial infection. Which of the following most likely triggered the fever?a.Interleukin-1b.Interleukin-6c.Interleukin-10d.Interferons (INFs)1 points QUESTION 251. Which patient will develop active immunity? A patient who:a.Has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunizationb.Receives preformed antibodies or T cells from a donorc.Has T cells that become B cellsd.Receives immunoglobulin1 points QUESTION 261. A 5-year-old female takes a hike through the woods during a school field trip. Upon returning home, she hugs her father, and he later develops poison ivy. Which of the following immune reactions is he experiencing?a.IgE-mediatedb.Tissue specificc.Immune complexd.Cell-mediated1 points QUESTION 271. The nurse would expect the occurrence of scabies to occur more commonly among children who:a.Attend day careb.Live in crowded, unsanitary conditionsc.Reside in rural areasd.Reside in rural areas1 points QUESTION 281. After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:a.Contain no DNA or RNAb.Are capable of independent reproductionc.Replicate their genetic material inside host cellsd.Are easily killed by antimicrobials1 points QUESTION 291. A 46-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the right big toe. He was diagnosed with gouty arthritis. He is at risk for developing:a.Cholelithiasisb.Myocarditisc.Uric Acidd.Liver failure1 points QUESTION 301. After studying about fungi, which information indicates a correct understanding of fungi? Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:a.Are easily treated with penicillinb.Are extremely rarec.Never occur with other infectionsd.Are commonly opportunistic1 points QUESTION 311. A 51-year-old male experienced severe acute gouty arthritis. Which of the following is the most common trigger for the symptoms?a.Traumab.Anemiac.High-fat foodsd.Lack of exercise1 points QUESTION 321. Tinea corporis (ringworm) is a _____ infection of the skin.a.Nematodeb.Fungalc.Virald.Bacterial1 points QUESTION 331. In discoid lupus erythematosus, skin lesions may be accompanied by Raynaud phenomenon, which is manifested by:a.Bone deformitiesb.Vasospasm in the extremitiesc.Arterial aneurysmsd.Venous thrombus1 points QUESTION 341. Rubella, rubeola, and roseola are common communicable diseases caused by _____ infection.a.Viralb.Bacterialc.Yeastd.Fungal1 points QUESTION 351. A 5-year-old female was diagnosed with seropositive juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (RA). The treatment option for this disease is termed:a.Supportiveb.Curativec.Antibacteriald.Experimental1 points QUESTION 361. Which cells are involved in initiating immune responses in the skin?a.Langerhans cellsb.Merkel cellsc.Keratinocytesd.Melanocytes1 points QUESTION 371. When trying to distinguish between an infectious disease and noninfectious disease, what is the hallmark symptom for most infectious diseases?a.Feverb.Jaundicec.Vomitingd.Pain1 points QUESTION 381. The nurse would correctly identify the medical term for ringworm as:a.Impetigob.Tinea corporisc.Thrushd.Psoriasis1 points QUESTION 391. A 4-month-old male is brought to his primary care provider for severe itching and skin lesions. He is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following would be elevated in this patient?a.Immunoglobulin D (IgD)b.Immunoglobulin M (IgM)c.Immunoglobulin E (IgE)d.Immunoglobulin G (IgG)1 points QUESTION 401. The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called:a.Monarticular arthritisb.Tophaceous goutc.Asymptomatic hyperuricemiad.Complicated gout
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A short doc. version of UCSD VIS 20 Western Art History course instructed by Prof. Ann Woods. This note contains with pictures and class notes.
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Chapter 7 Study Guide
Sigelman, C. K. & Rider, E. A. (2015). Life-Span Human Development (8th Ed.). Belmont, CA: Wadsworth. (ISBN 13-978-1-285-45431-3
ACCT1501 Practice Exam Questions & Solutions
QUESTION 1 (6 Marks)Bank Reconciliation
The following information is given about Nadak Co.:
1. The August 31 balance shown on the bank statement is $9,810.
2. There is a deposit in transit of $1,260 at August 31.
3. Outstanding cheques at August 31 totalled $1,890.
4. A bank charge of $40 for cheques was made to the account during August, as shown on the bank statement. Although the company was expecting a charge, its amount was not known until the bank statement arrived.
5. In the process of reviewing the cheques, it was determined that a cheque issued to a supplier in payment of accounts payable of $361 had been recorded as $631.
6. The August 31 balance in the general ledger Cash account, before reconciliation, is $8,950.
Part A: Prepare a bank reconciliation as of August 31, 2011.(4 marks)
Part B: Prepare any necessary adjusting journal entries.(2 marks)
QUESTION 2 (9 Marks) Financial Reporting Principles, Accounting Standards and Auditing, & Sustainability Reporting
Provide short answers to the following:
1. What are generally accepted accounting principles?(2 Marks)
2. Going concern assumption is one of the key assumptions to financial reports. What is going concern assumption? Why is assumption important in the preparation of financial statements?(4 marks)
3. Describe Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions and provide an example for each of them. (3 marks)
QUESTION 3 Financial Statement Analysis (8 marks)
BPS Ltd, a supplier of telecommunications equipment, retails its products through suburban outlets. Shown below are the calculations of some of its key financial ratios for 2011 and 2012.
Return on Equity 13% 12%
Return on Assets 8% 9%
Profit margin 20 18%
Asset turnover 0.40 0.50
Days in inventory 72 days 55 days
Days in debtors 42 days 42 days
Current ratio 1.6 1.5
Quick ratio 0.7 1.1
Debt-to-Equity ratio 1.4 1.0
Return on Equity Operating Profit after Tax/ Shareholders' Equity
Return on Assets Operating Profit after Tax/Total Assets
Financial Leverage Total Assets/Total Shareholders’ Equity
Profit Margin Earnings Before Interest and Tax/Sales
Asset Turnover Sales/Total Assets
Days in Inventory Average Inventory/ COGS x 365
Days in Debtors Average Trade Debtors/Credit Sales x 365
Current Ratio Current Assets/Current Liabilities
Quick Ratio Current Assets - Inventory/Current Liabilities
Debt to Equity Ratio Total Liabilities/Total Shareholders' Equity
Analyse BPS’s profitability, asset management,liquidity and financial structure for 2012 using the ratio information.
QUESTION 4 (15 marks)Control Accounts
Rupert Ltd maintains subsidiary ledgers for debtors and creditors. At 31 May 2014, the debtors control account has a debit balance of $50,120 and the creditors control account has a credit balance of $30,670. An extract of totals from the special journals for the month of June 2014 is as follows:
Cash received from debtors
Cash paid to creditors
Discount received from
Discount allowed to debtors
Complete the debtors and creditors control accounts as they would appear in the general ledger.
QUESTION 5 ADJUSTING ENTRIES AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (23 Marks)
The following pre-adjusted trial balance has been prepared for Sydney Company as at 30 June 2014 (for the 12 months beginning on 1 July 2013):
Bank Overdraft 10,000
Accounts Receivable 200,000
Allowance for Doubtful Debts 1,000
Prepaid Rent 10,000
Property, Plant and 450,000
Accumulated Depreciation - PPE 200,000
Accounts Payable 60,000
Bank loan 50,000
Contributed Capital 310,000
Retained Profit at 1 July 2013 34,000
Sales revenue 4,50,000
Cost of Goods Sold 265,000
Interest Expense 5,000
Wages Expenses 80,000
Rent Expense 5,000
The following information is given which may give rise to year end adjustments:
• Depreciation on Property, Plant and Equipment is provided for on a straight line basis at 10% per annum, and it is assumed that it will have no salvage value.
• The balance in Prepaid Rent relates to the 12 month period from 1 January 2014 to 31 December 2014.
• An ageing analysis shows that $4,000 of Accounts Receivable is estimated to be uncollectible.
• On 30 June 2014, the directors declared a dividend of $5,000, which the shareholders authorised. The dividend is to be paid on 15 September 2014.
• It is discovered that $10,000 cash received during the year and credited to sales are actually related to services to be delivered in July 2014.
• $5,000 of wages relating to June 2014 have not been paid and need to be accrued.
Part A (12 Marks)
Prepare journal entries for the necessary end of period adjustments.
Part B (7 Marks)
Prepare an Income Statement for the year ended 30 June 2014:
Part C (4 Marks)
In the Balance Sheet as at 30 June 2014, what would be the closing balance of retained profits? Show all workings.
QUESTION 6 (15 marks) Inventory
The following information relates to inventory transactions of Promises Ltd for the month ending 30 June 2014:
Date Cash Purchases Cash Sales Balance
1 June 100 units @ $10
10 June 80 units @ $12
18 June 140 units @ $20
25 June 30 units @ $14
30 June 50 units @ $25
Promises Ltd uses FIFO (first-in-first-out) and perpetual inventory control.
Calculate the cost of goods sold based on the costs of units sold. (3 Marks)
Prepare the journal entries for inventory purchases and cost of sales for the month of June 2014. (12 Marks)
3 MARKS FOR THE CALCULATION
4 MARKS: 2 MARKS EACH FOR INVENTORY PURCHASE JOURNALS
4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 18 JUNE
4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 30 JUNE
QUESTION 7 (10Marks) Noncurrent assets
On 1 July 2011, Promises Ltd purchased equipment at a cost of $150,000. The equipment is depreciated using the reducing balance method at the rate of 40% per annum.
Prepare the journal entries for depreciation for each year 30 June 2012, 30 June 2013 and 30 June 2014. (9 Marks)
What is the book value of the equipment at 30 June 2014? (1 Mark)
3 MARKS EACH FOR EACH JOURNAL (NO HALF MARKS)
1 MARK FOR BOOK VALUE (ALLOWANCE FOR CARRYFORWARD ERRORS)
Question 8 Management Accounting and Cost Concepts (13.5 marks)
Part A (2 marks)
For each of the items 1-4 in the table below, indicate whether the item is a product cost or a period cost
Item Cost Classification
1)A food retailer purchases milk for resale
2)Depreciation of head office computers
3)Salaries of production line workers for a
4)Advertising costs to promote a manufacturer’s
½ mark each entry
Part B (9.5 marks)
Bandcamp Ltd manufactures guitars. In the month of January 2014, Bandcamp Ltd recorded:
• direct labour cost of $200 000
• raw materials purchased of $400 000
• total overhead cost of $500 000.
The following information was supplied by Bandcamp Ltd’s accountant about the opening and closing inventory:
31 January 1 January
Raw materials inventory $80 000 $95 000
Work in progress inventory $110 000 $60 000
Finished goods inventory $255 000 $75 000
1. Prepare a cost of goods manufactured statement for January 2014.
2. Prepare a cost of goods sold statement for January 2014.
Part C (2 marks)
Tree & Woods Corp., an international furniture company, manufactures and sells furniture of unique natural material. In 2010, the company sold all 25,000 chairs that it produced at $200 each. Total costs amounted to $3,300,000 comprised of $1,300,000 variable costs and $2,000,000 fixed costs. In 2011, the company purchases a new saw mill for $110,000. The useful life is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of $10,000. Each year, the same amount of depreciation expense is recorded. The usage of the new saw mill allows Tree & Woods to reduce variable costs for producing one chair by $7. All other costs remain the same as in 2010.
What was Tree & Woods Corp.’s break-even point in number of units in 2010?
Question 9 - MCQ practice questions
You have seen samples of MCQ in the lectures and in your quiz attempts.
Developmental Psychology: Chapter 5 Study Guide
Chapter 5 Study Guide
Sigelman, C. K. & Rider, E. A. (2015). Life-Span Human Development (8th Ed.). Belmont, CA: Wadsworth. (ISBN 13-978-1-285-45431-3)
INB2102 International Business Lecture 7 Notes: The Evolution of the International Monetary and financial system
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The Bretton Woods Order
Globalisation of Financial markets
Collapse of Gold Exchange Standard
Evolving International Monetary Regime
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