NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health - Pediatrics- South University
NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health - Pediatrics- South University
The incidence of congenital heart defects is estimated to be ________ of all live births.
Breastmilk can be safely stored in a freezer below 0 degrees Fahrenheit for how long?
Which foreign body needs immediate removal from a five-year-old boy’s nose?
The most useful diagnostic test in delayed puberty is _____________________.
complete thyroid panel
X-Ray of the left wrist and hand
X-Ray of the right wrist and hand
X-Ray of the spinal column
An average vision of a two-year-old child is approximately:
A five-year-old female presents for a follow-up emergency room visit with a diagnosis of bronchitis. You would expect which treatment to have been prescribed?
Increase rest and fluid
An adolescent with a chronic asthma cough notes that symptoms are usually worse _____________.
only with exertion
only during the daytime
only at night
at night and with exertion
An average adolescent female usually experiences her biggest growth spurt at approximately what age?
Ten and half years
Eleven and half years
Twelve and half years
Thirteen and half years
If an adolescent has a bone age of 10 but is actually 13 years of age, this patient has ______.
an increased risk of fracture in the next three years
an increased risk of osteoporosis as an adult
a higher potential for bone growth
a lower potential for bone growth
Gardasil results in greater antibody responses for females who are administered the three-dose series between what ages?
Six to twenty-six years of age
Prior to eleven years of age
Nine to fifteen years of age
Nine to twenty-six years of age
An eight-year old has chronic intermittent nasal congestion. All but which of the following would support allergic rhinitis?
Red swollen turbinates
Darkened areas below eyes
Increased basophils on complete blood count (CB
Itchy, watery eyes
A fifteen-month old failed treatment with amoxicillin for an otitis media. At his two-week recheck, his tympanic membrane remained red with distorted landmarks and he persisted with nasal discharge that is thick and yellowish. The best action for the nursing practitioner should be to prescribe:
A ten-day-course of augmentin
A three-week-course of a cephalexin
A higher dose amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone and an antihistamine
An infant should be able to say his or her first word by:
four to five months
eight to nine months
twelve to fifteen months
twenty four to twenty six months
The latter part of adolescence includes the ability to develop ________ and _______ means to be a part of society.
strong attachments; sexuality
critical thinking; basic life skills
moral; intellectual means
A fourteen-year-old adolescent presents with fatigue, endocarditis, pulmonary hypertension, arrhythmias, and congestive heart failure. You suspect he may have ____________.
pulmonary valve stenosis
aortic valve stenosis
a ventricular septal defect (VSD)
A four-year-old male patient presents with his mother with a school referral regarding red eyes. Which questions would not assist in establishing a list of differential diagnoses?
Unilateral vs. bilateral presentation
Type of drainage
History of a bacterial infection one month ago
______________ adolescents should be screened for sexually transmitted diseases.
An infant should no longer have a head lag when pulled from the supine to sitting position at what age?
____________ should be given as a supplement in the management of delayed puberty.
Vitamins B1 and B12
Vitamins D and E
Vitamin A and Calcium
Calcium and Vitamin D
Parents or guardians of adolescents should ___________________.
not be included in the adolescent's health care
receive health guidance information at least twice during adolescence
encourage reasonable use of alcohol and tobacco by the adolescent
encourage early sexual activity by providing condoms to the adolescent
How does cultural sensitivity impact the care of infants in the primary care setting?
Health-care providers may possess cultural biases that can impact care.
Cultural sensitivities do not exist in health care.
Cultural sensitivity only impacts the parents of infants.
Cultural sensitivity increases access to timely health-care services for infants.
The most typical chest radiographic finding consistent with the diagnosis of asthma is ______________.
normal chest film
diffuse airway edema
right upper-lobe infiltrate
A 10 yo has a single painful ulcerated lesion on an erythematous base on the inner buccal mucosa. The most likely diagnosis and treatment would be:
herpes simplex stomatitis--oral acyclovir
apthous ulcer--triamcinalone in orabase
Hand, foot, mouth syndrome--antibiotic mouthwash
A 9 month old is noted to have a bifid uvula. This would increase his risk of developing which disorder?
All of the following may predispose a patient to thrush except:
poor oral hygiene
Patients with sinusitis should be instructed not to participate in what activity?
cross country running
What complication of sinusitis are adolescent males more prone to?
potts puffy tumor
Acceptable management options for allergic rhinitis include all of the following except:
A 7 yo has experienced recurrent nose bleeds in the past 2 months. What finding on the physical exam would suggest an underlying medical cause for the epistaxis?
grade II murmur
A 2 yo male with a history of chronic serous OM is noted to have a pearly white opacity in the upper outer quadrant of his TM. He currently has no symptoms and appears to be ok. The most likely diagnosis and appropriate managment would be:
tympanosclerosis; no treatment is necessary
persistent perforation; prescribe topical antibiotic drops
foreign body; perform an ear wash for removal
cholesteatoma; refer to otolaryngology
A 15 mo failed treatment with amoxicillin for OM. At his 2 week re-check his TM remained red with distorted landmarks and he persisted with nasal congestion, poor sleep, and fever. The next best step would be to treat with:
a 10 day course of augmentin
a 3 week course of cephalosporin
a higher dose of amoxicillin and topical abx
ceftriaxone and an antihistamine
All but which one of the following patients are at an increased risk of developing otitis media?
2 yo with cleft palate repair at 1 year of age
15 mo with down syndrome
9 mo with lactose intolerance
3 yo with IgA immune deficiency
Patients with otitis externa should be instructed to do which one of the following:
keep ear dry until symptoms improve
limit swimming for the remainder of summer
wear ear plugs at all times with swimming
use alcohol drops before swimming each day
A 10 yo has marked ear pain, not wanting anyone to touch his ear. The canal is edematous and exudate is present. TM is normal. How should this be managed?
oral steroids and topical neomycin
oral amoxicillin and topical anesthetic
oral amoxicillin and topical steroid
A 16 yo was hit in the eye 1 day ago and now has ecchymoses on the upper and lower lids with 5/10 eye pain. All but which of the following would be appropriate to obtain at this time:
The greatest risk in a patient with a hyphema is which of the following?
Corneal abrasions can be managed with topical application of which of the following:
anesthetic for pain control
steroids to prevent adhesions
antibiotics to prevent infection
atropine to prevent ciliary spasm
Trauma to the eye increases the risk of developing all but which one of the following?
Fluorescein staining of the eye is used to detect a:
Prematurity increases the risk of developing which one of the following?
A 3 month old has a mild asymmetrical corneal light reflex on physical exam. What is the next appropriate step?
observe and reevaluate at the next well check
refer immediately to ophthalmology
begin atropine drops or eye patching
protect eyes from sunlight
Which of the following may cause microcephaly?
What finding may accompany macrocephaly?
Pulsating anterior fontanel
Premature closure of suture lines
Widened suture lines
Obtaining a CT of the head would be indicated in which of these conditions?
Which one of the following conditions increases the risk of developing hydrocephalus?
A conjunctivitis appearing in a 2 day old newborn is likely due to:
chemical irritation from eye drops
group B streptocuccus
Confirming the diagnosis of chlamydia conjunctivitis in a newborn would best be done by obtaining which one of the following?
cervical swab of the mother
urine PCR from the mother
culture of the eye discharge
culture of the conjunctival scrapings
Which one of the following eye findings would be considered an ophthalmic emergency?
unilateral vesicular lesions on the upper eyelid of a 3 week old
presence of chemosis in a 5 yo with bilateral upper eyelid edema
cobblestone-like appearance along the inner aspect of the upper eyelid in a 15 yo
bilateral redness along the eyelid margins with tiny ulcerated areas in a 16 yo
The most appropriate management of a 5 yo with a firm, nontender nodule in the mid-upper eyelid for 3 weeks would be:
topical ophthalmic ointment
Daily eyelid cleansing with diluted baby shampoo and a cotton tipped applicator would be appropriate in the treatment of which one of the following conditions?
A 3 year old has an edematous, mildly erythematous right upper eyelid for one day with a fever of 103. An important eye assessment would be:
optic disk papilledema
Concurrent otitis media and conjunctivitis is likely due to which organism?
A 16 yo girl makes the following statements to you during her health visit. Which of the following pieces of information should not be kept confidential?
I have been sexually active with three of my boyfriends
I sometimes smoke marijuana
I want to get pregnant
Sometimes I feel like ending my life
In performing a physical examination on a nine month old infant, which of the following developmental fears would not be appropriate for you to consider?
Separation from parents
When performing a physical examination on a toddler, which of the following body parts would you examine last:
Heart and lungs
abdomen and genitals
Ears and throat
Hips and extremities
Role play with equipment during the course of a physical examination would be most beneficial with which of the following age groups:
Young school-age children
Older school-age children
Providing reassurance of "normalcy" during the course of an examination would be most important for:
Young school-age children
Older school-age children
Which of the following would not elevate the pulse of a child:
The PNP recognizes which of the following signs as indicators that baby is not receiving sufficient breastmilk?
Sleepiness, jaundice, decreased urine and stool
Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting
Bulging fontanel and irritability
Sleeplessness and excitability
Blood pressure should be measured at WCC beginning at age:
A wide pulse pressure that results from a high systolic blood pressure is usually not due to which of the following:
A patent ductus arteriosus
Head and chest circumferences should be equal at:
The anterior fontanel usually closes by:
Diffuse edema of the soft tissue of the scalp which usually crosses suture lines in the newborn is:
An infant should no longer have head lag when pulled from the supine to sitting position at what age?
"Boggy" nasal mucous membranes with serous drainage upon examination usually suggests:
A white instead of red reflex upon eye examination of a 1 yo child would suggest:
An accommodative error
A cobblestone appearance of the palpebral conjunctiva usually indicates:
An eye that deviates in when covered but returns to midline when uncovered is an:
Pain produced by manipulation of the auricle or pressure on the tragus suggests:
Acute otitis media
Otitis media with effusion
A hypernasal voice and snoring in a child is suggestive of:
Polyps of the larynx
Physiological splitting of the second heart sound during inspiration in a child:
should be evaluated with an EKG
Should be referred to a cardiologist
Which of the following is not characteristic of innocent heart murmurs in children?
Systolic in timing
Varies in loudness with positioning
Usually transmitted to the neck
Usually loudest at lower left sternal border or at second or third intercostal space
A grade II musical or vibratory murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border that changes with positioning is suggestive of a:
Pulmonary ejection murmur
Ventricular septal defect
Vibratory or Still's murmur
Wheezing in a child may not be found in which of the following conditions:
Pleural friction rub
Gynecomastia in a male may not be a finding in which of the following:
Normal pubertal development
Which of the following would usually not be considered a sign of a pituitary tumor in an adolescent female?
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Loss of peripheral vision
Increase in headaches
Which of the following is not a specific examination test for a dislocated hip?
In addition to the knee, which of the following should be examined in a child complaining of knee pain?
Which of the following infant reflexes should not disappear by 6 months of age?
Spasticity in an infant may be an early sign of:
A shift to the left is present when which of the following are elevated?
Bands or stabs
Which of the following is usually elevated with viral infections?
Decreased platelets may not be found in which of the following:
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Medication usage (e.g. ampicillin, cephalothin)
Which of the following does not suggest a urinary tract infection?
Fear, Anxiety and Related Disorders. Lecture 4: Social Anxiety Disorder
These are all notes of lecture 4 on social anxiety from the course Fear, Anxiety and Related Disorders at the RU in Nijmegen, third year psychology. These are all notes of lecture about social anxiety of the subject Fear, Anxiety and Related Disorders of the RU in Nijmegen, third year of psychology.
End of Rotation: Psychiatry
Are you a PA/medical student starting clinical rotations? Are you nervous about taking your end of rotation exams? Look no further! Provided are notes on Psychiatry geared specifically towards the PAEA objectives list. Topics covered include depressive disorders, anxiety disorders, paraphilic disorders, schizophrenia, eating disorders, personality disorders, substance related disorders, somatic symptom disorders, and disruptive/impulsive/conduct disorders.
IB Psychology HL Semester 1 Final Exam Notes on Abnormal Psychology
Notes for IB Psychology Final Exam on Abnormal Psychology: Diagnosing and Treating Mental Disorders. This note focuses on social anxiety disorder.
Psychoanalytic & Feminist Theory
This is a summary of: Freud, from The Interpretation of Dreams, “The Oedipus Complex”, Roland Barthes, ‘The Death of the Author\', Michel Foucault, \'What is an Author\', Seminar Notes, Gilbert & Gubar, ‘from The Madwoman in the Attic, “The Anxiety of Authorship” (two summaries & a tl;dr of the two summaries. I really liked this article), Jacques Lacan, \'From the Agency of the Letter in the Unconscious\' and an unfinished summary of Slavoj Žižek, \'Courtly Love, or, Woman As Thing\'.
NURS 6521N Week 5 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pharmacology: Walden University (Verified answers, Scored A)
NURS 6521N Week 5 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pharmacology: Walden University
A nurse who works at an outpatient mental health clinic follows numerous clients who have schizophrenia, many of whom are being treated with olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following clients likely has the highest susceptibility to the adverse effects of olanzapine?
A client who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle
A client who was recently treated with intravenous antibiotics because of cellulitis in his lower leg
A client who has a body mass index of 16.5 (underweight) and who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
A client who has type 1 diabetes and who practices poor glycemic control
A nurse will be prepared to administer naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who has had an overdose of morphine. Repeated doses of Narcan will be necessary because Narcan
has a shorter half-life than morphine.
causes the respiratory rate to decrease.
combined with morphine, increases the physiologic action of the morphine.
has less strength in each dose than do individual doses of morphine.
A nurse is providing care for a patient who suffered extensive burns to his extremities during a recent industrial accident. Topical lidocaine gel has been ordered to be applied to the surfaces of all his burns in order to achieve adequate pain control. When considering this order, the nurse should be aware that
intravenous lidocaine may be preferable to topical application.
pain relief is unlikely to be achieved due to the destruction of nerve endings in the burn site.
there is a risk of systemic absorption of the lidocaine through the patient's traumatized skin.
lidocaine must be potentiated with another anesthetic in order to achieve pain control.
A patient has been hospitalized for treatment of substance abuse after being arrested and jailed for the past 24 hours. The patient is experiencing severe muscle and abdominal cramps, seizures, and acute psychosis due to abrupt withdrawal. Which of the following drug classes is the most likely cause of these severe and potentially fatal withdrawal symptoms?
A nurse is caring for a patient who abuses marijuana. The treatment for marijuana abuse consists mainly of
no nursing action unless the patient experiences a “bad trip.”
drug therapy with bromocriptine (Parlodel).
nonpharmacologic interventions combined with an exercise program.
aggressive respiratory assistance
A nurse is caring for a patient who is in severe pain and is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following would be the nurse's priority assessments?
Respiratory rate, seizure activity, and electrolytes
Liver function studies, pain intensity, and blood glucose level
Respiratory rate, pain intensity, and mental status
Pain intensity, respiratory rate, and level of consciousness
A patient has a history of tonic-clonic seizures that have been successfully treated with phenytoin (Dilantin) for several years. Phenytoin achieves a therapeutic effect by
simultaneously potentiating the effects of GABA and inhibiting reuptake.
decreasing the influx of sodium into neurons.
by slowing the function of calcium channels within the neurological system.
increasing the levels of available glutamate.
A nurse who provides care on an acute medicine unit has frequently recommended the use of nicotine replacement gum for patients who express a willingness to quit smoking during their admission or following their discharge. For which of the following patients would nicotine gum be contraindicated?
A patient whose pulmonary embolism was treated with a heparin infusion
A patient whose stage III pressure ulcer required intravenous antibiotics and a vacuum dressing
A patient who received treatment for kidney failure due to an overdose of acetaminophen
A patient with a history of angina who experienced a non-ST wave myocardial infarction
A patient with mild low back pain has been advised to take acetaminophen. The nurse will inform him that excessive intake of acetaminophen may result in
acute renal failure.
A postsurgical patient has been provided with a morphine patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) but has expressed her reluctance to use it for fear of becoming addicted. How can the nurse best respond to this patient's concerns?
“If you do become addicted, we'll make sure to provide you with the support and resources necessary to help you with your recovery.”
“It is not uncommon to develop a dependence on pain medications, but this usually takes place over a long period and is not the same as addiction.”
“It's important that you accept that your current need to control your pain is more important than fears of becoming addicted.”
“You don't need to worry. It's actually not true that you can get addicted to the medications we use in a hospital setting.”
A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The mother reports that the child has been vomiting, and the nurse notes that the child's face is flushed and she is diaphoretic. The mother thinks that the child may have swallowed carbachol drops. A diagnosis of cholinergic poisoning is made. Which of the following drugs would be administered?
A 59-year-old woman has presented to a clinic requesting a prescription for lorazepam (Ativan) in order to treat her recurrent anxiety. Her care provider, however, believes that a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) would be more appropriate. What advantage do SSRIs have over benzodiazepines in the treatment of anxiety?
SSRIs have a more rapid therapeutic effect.
SSRIs do not require serial blood tests during therapy.
SSRIs generally have fewer adverse effects.
SSRIs require administration once per week, versus daily or twice daily with benzodiazepines.
A 62-year-old woman has been prescribed a fentanyl transdermal patch for chronic cancer pain. The patient asks the nurse how long it will take for her to experience pain relief. The nurse will instruct the patient that she should feel pain relief in approximately
Which of the following drugs used to treat anxiety would be appropriate for a patient who is a school teacher and is concerned about feeling sedated at work?
A 20-year-old man has begun treatment of the psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia using olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following symptoms would be categorized as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
Lack of interest in normal activities
A nurse works in a sleep disorder clinic and is responsible for administering medications to the patients. Which of the following patients would be most likely to receive zaleplon (Sonata)?
A 35-year-old man who is having difficulty falling asleep, but once asleep can stay asleep
A 46-year-old man who receives an antidepressant and needs a sleep aid
A 20-year-old woman who will take the drug about once a week
A 52-year-old woman who needs to fall asleep quickly and stay asleep all night
A patient is suffering from acute inhalant intoxication. The priority nursing intervention will be to
provide an emesis basin.
administer oxygen therapy.
assess the patient's psychosocial status.
An elderly woman is slated for a hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement surgery) after falling and breaking her hip on the stairs outside her home. The woman's pain in the time since her injury has been severe, and her care team has been treating it with morphine. Which of the following administration schedules is most likely to control the patient's pain?
Twice-daily doses of long-acting morphine, with short-acting morphine available for breakthrough pain
A large long-acting dose of morphine at 8 a.m. with smaller doses at 12 p.m., 5 p.m., and 10 p.m.
Scheduled doses of short-acting morphine q1h around the clock
Alternating doses of long-acting morphine with short-acting morphine
Morphine has been prescribed for a 28-year-old man with severe pain due to a back injury. The nurse will advise the patient to avoid
A patient who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 week calls the clinic and reports to the nurse that the drug is not working. The patient informs the nurse that she is still having symptoms of anxiety. The nurse will tell the patient that
she will report this to the physician immediately.
optimum relief of anxiety usually occurs after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment.
it may take up to 6 months for the drug to relieve her anxiety.
the drug is not going to work for her and the medication needs to be changed.
A 26-year-old professional began using cocaine recreationally several months ago and has begun using the drug on a daily basis over the past few weeks. He has noticed that he now needs to take larger doses of cocaine in order to enjoy the same high that he used to experience when he first used the drug. A nurse should recognize that this pattern exemplifies
A patient who is experiencing withdrawal from heavy alcohol use have developed psychosis and been treated with haloperidol. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the care team to assess the patient for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
The patient develops muscle rigidity and a sudden, high fever.
The patient demonstrates a significant increase in agitation after being given haloperidol.
The patient develops yellowed sclerae and intense pruritis (itchiness).
The patient complains of intense thirst and produces copious amounts of urine.
A 64-year-old-patient has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) because of increasing periods of anxiety. The nurse should be careful to assess for
current nicotine use.
a history of current or past alcohol use.
a diet high in fat.
a diet high in carbohydrates.
A male patient has been brought to the emergency department during an episode of status epilepticus. Diazepam is to be administered intravenously. The nurse will be sure to
administer after diluting the drug with gabapentin in intravenous solution.
inject the diazepam very quickly, 15 mg in 10 to15 seconds.
inject very slowly, no faster than 100 mg/minute.
avoid the small veins in the dorsum of the hand or the wrist.
A patient has been admitted to the ICU because of multiple traumas due to a motor vehicle accident. The physician has ordered propofol (Diprivan) to be used for maintenance of sedation. Before administration of propofol, a priority assessment by the nurse would be to check for a history of
low blood pressure.
increased intraocular pressure.
A nurse is assigned to a patient who is taking lithium. Which of the following drug serum levels would indicate that the patient is at risk for adverse effects of the drug?
A patient has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for short-term treatment of insomnia. Which of the following will the nurse include in a teaching plan for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
The drug should not be used for longer than 1 month.
It is available in both quick-onset and continuous-release oral forms.
One of the most common adverse effects of the drug is headache.
The drug does not cause sleepiness in the morning.
It should be taken 1 hour to 90 minutes before going to bed.
A patient has been prescribed lithium therapy. Which of the following signs and symptoms will the nurse tell the patient to report immediately?
The wife of a patient who is taking haloperidol calls the clinic and reports that her husband has taken the first dose of the drug and it is not having a therapeutic effect. An appropriate response by the nurse would be
“I'll ask the nurse practitioner if the haloperidol can be discontinued and another drug started.”
“I'll report this to the nurse practitioner and see if he will add another drug to enhance the effects of the haloperidol.”
“Continue the prescribed dose. It may take several days to work.”
“I'll ask the nurse practitioner if the dosage can be increased.”
A middle-aged patient was diagnosed with major depression after a suicide attempt several months ago and has failed to respond appreciably to treatment with SSRIs. As a result, his psychiatrist has prescribed phenelzine. When planning this patient's subsequent care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?
Risk for Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal peristalsis
Risk for Injury related to drug–drug interactions or drug–nutrient interactions
Risk for Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion related to cardiovascular effects of phenelzine
Risk for Infection related to immunosuppressive effects of phenelzine
Personality Psychology: Anxiety and coping mechanisms
These notes cover anxiety, the different ways people cope with anxiety, ineffective ways to cope with anxiety, the frustration aggression hypothesis, displacing aggression, catharsis and aggression, attachment theories, the 4 category model,
Abnormal Psychology UNL PSYC 380
This is a 19 page comprehensive study guide covering content from Abnormal Psychology (UNL PSYC 380). It is organized by exam with clearly labeled topics. It includes explanations, summaries, definitions to help unpack and explain the content. Topics include clinical psychology, anxiety, depression, bipolar disorder, psychosis, schizophrenia, ADHD, Autism Spectrum Disorder, and conduct problems. Please note this guide was adapted from course material and notes I took in class.
Summary & Notes for Literary Theory: Narratology, Postmodernism, Marxism, New Historicism, Feminist Theory, Queer Theory, Postmodernism.
Summaries of articles in 'The Norton Anthology of Theory and Criticism', as well as chapters from 'Beginning Theory: An Introduction to Literary and Cultural Theory' by P. Barry.
Narratology, which includes: 'Aristotle Poetics', 'De Saussure Nature of the Linguistic Sign', 'Wimsatt and Beardsley The Intentional Fallacy', 'Barry Ch. 2 Structuralism' & 'Barry Ch. 12 Narratology'.
Postmodernism, which includes: 'Paul de Man Semiology and Rhetoric', 'Lyotard Defining the Postmodern', 'Baudrillard From the Precession of Simulacra', 'Barry Ch. 3 Post-structuralism and Deconstruction', 'Postmodern Literary Criticism'.
Marxism & New Historicism, which includes: 'Antonio Gramsci The Formation of the Intellectuals', 'Lecture Notes On Marxism', 'Horkheimer and Adorno from the Culture Industry: Enlightenment as Mass Deception', 'Greenblatt: from Resonance and Wonder', 'Moretti from Graphs Maps Trees: Abstract Models for a Literary History Ch. 1', 'Barry Ch. 8 Marxist criticism', 'Barry Ch. 9 New Historicism and Cultural Materialism', 'Freud, from The Interpretation of Dreams, “The Oedipus Complex”', 'Roland Barthes, ‘The Death of the Author’', 'Michel Foucault, 'What is an Author'', 'Gilbert & Gubar, ‘from The Madwoman in the Attic, “The Anxiety of Authorship” (two summaries)', 'Jacques Lacan, 'From the Agency of the Letter in the Unconscious'', 'Slavoj Žižek, 'Courtly Love, or, Woman As Thing''.
Feminist & Queer Theory, which includes: 'Simone de Beauvoir, 'The Second Sex, Chapter XI. Myth and Reality'', 'Michel Foucault, 'Discipline and Punish: The Birth of the Prison'', 'Monique Wittig, 'One Is Not Born a Woman’', 'Berlant and Warner, 'Sex in Public'', 'Barry Ch. 5 Psychoanalytic Criticism', 'Barry Ch. 6 Feminist Criticism', 'Barry Ch. 7 Lesbian/gay criticism'.
Postcolonialism, which includes: 'Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel, 'The Master-Slave Dialectic'', 'Edward Said, ‘Jane Austen and Empire’', 'Homi K. Bhabha, 'The Commitment to Theory'', 'Barry Ch. 10 Postcolonial Criticism'.
Rasmussen NUR 2407 - Which adjustment in pain medication may be needed for an elderly person with elevated liver
Rasmussen NUR 2407 - Which adjustment in pain medication may be needed for an elderly person with elevated liver
1. Which adjustment in pain medication may be needed for an elderly person with elevated liver enzymes due to anticonvulsant therapy?
A higher dose should be used with the same time schedule due to excessive enzyme counts.
The time between doses should be expanded to allow for metabolism in hepatic dysfunction.
The medication should be crushed to facilitate more rapid metabolism
The time between doses should be shortened. Elevated enzyme counts will speed metabolism
1. The nurse reads that the half-life or morphine is roughly 3 hours. How would the nurse use this information to decide if it is safe to give Morphine every 3 hours as needed for pain?
The half-life of Morphine shouldn't be an issue here. Pain alone should determine the interval.
The half-life for Morphine shortens in states of dependence. It will be needed more often.
The half-life of Morphine shortens over time as the liver becomes familiar with the drug.
The half-life of Morphine would be longer in hepatic insufficiency. The drug would accumulate.
1. A client with persistent pain due to cancer is brought to the emergency department by his spouse. Upon assessment, the nurse notes pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. The nurse should immediately prepare for administration of which medication?
1. A nurse is providing client education about the use of a fentanyl transdermal delivery system. Which of these statements would indicate accurate understanding of self-care expectations?
Massage the patch whenever pain occurs
Always apply the patch to the same spot on your skin
Change the patch every 72 hours
Driving is safe when using this form of narcotic
1. What next after giving a young man Dilaudid (hydromorphone) for migraine?
Awaken him to assess his pain level.
Explain the risks of Dilaudid (after giving it)
Offer him something to eat.
Provide a restful, dimly lit environment.
1. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is ordered for an elderly client experiencing a migraine. The nurse understands that triptans are contraindicated in which condition?
Chronic Lung disease
Irritable bowel syndrome
1. A client is returning to the clinic for follow-up related to elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following medications on the client's medication list would concern the nurse the most?
Vitamin C prn for cold symptoms
Acetaminophen as needed for pain
Ibubrofen three times a day
1. A client taking paroxetine (Paxil), a serotonin reuptake inhibitor for post-traumatic stress disorder, calls the clinic complaining of confusion, restlessness and fever. What should the nurse reply?
Tell him to seek a haloperidol (Haldol) prescription from an urgent care doctor.
Have him talk to his doctor before taking any more Paxil. These are signs of serotonin toxicity.
Have him submit a urine specimen. He is at risk for drug induced urine retention, and UTI.
Explain to the client that these are expected antidepressant side effects that will subside with time.
1. A client taking amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant) complains of having blurred vision and dry mouth, and he states that he hasn't had a bowel movement in 3 days, whereas he normally has one daily. His vital signs are temperature 97.6° F, pulse 90/minute, blood pressure 130/79 mm Hg, and respirations 20/minute. Based on this assessment, the nurse should suspect which of the following causes?
1. A client experiencing loss of libido wants to know why he was started on citalopram, an SSRI, rather than one of the other types of anti-depressants?" Which response would be most appropriate?
"Probably it is the only medication that your insurance will pay for"
"I can't begin to guess what your doctor was thinking. You need to ask him."
"SSRIs have fewer side effects than other antidepressants. Should I mention the concern to your provider?"
"Medications like Celexa work much faster than the other medications"
1. A depressed client is being started on phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. Which statement shows he knows the needed self-care precautions?
"Nardil causes memory problems, but I can take Ginseng to help with that."
"I can't drink alcohol, but caffeinated drinks and hot chocolate are fine."
"I can have pizza as long as there is no sausage on it."
"When I go to cookouts this summer I should eat chicken instead of hotdogs."
1. A client who started an antidepressant 1 week ago tells his nurse, "I really don't think this medication is helping me." Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
"Why do you think the medication is not helping you?"
"What were you hoping would happen?"
"You need to come to the clinic so we can discuss this."
"It can take weeks for antidepressants to work. How are you doing?"
1. A friend of a nurse who is being treated for anxiety with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor wants to know why Zoloft (sertraline) is better for controlling anxiety than a benzodiazepine. Which of the following is the nurse's best response?
"Zoloft is better for the control of physical symptoms of anxiety than benzodiazepines."
"Zoloft provide a more rapid and durable response to the uncomfortable anxiety symptoms."
"Benzodiazepines currently have no role in the treatment of anxiety."
"Zoloft is better for reducing cognitive symptoms of anxiety than benzodiazepines."
1. The client has been prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), an atypical antipsychotic. Which laboratory finding should the nurse watch closely, since it may be altered by this medication?
The client's thyroid level
The client's WBC count
The client's albumin level
The client's arterial blood gases
1. A client who has been taking haloperidol (Haldol), a traditional antipsychotic, is now to complaining of severe muscle spasms of the neck and back. Based on these manifestations, which of these prn prescriptions could the nurse offer to help stop the symptoms?
1. A client who was involved in a motor vehicle accident comes into the ER distraught and complaining of leg pain. Knowing that the client is experiencing a stress response to trauma, what signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to see?
A decrease in serum glucose
Elevated pulse and respirations
Hyperactive bowel sounds
1. An elderly person is being assessed for repeated falls. Which of their medicines increases that risk? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Halcion (triazolam), a benzodiazepine for sleep
Acetaminophen (APAP), a peripheral analgesic for back pain
OxyContin (oxycodone), an opiate for back pain
Lyrica (pregabalin), a GABA sustainer for nerve pain
Capsaicin cream for local control of back pain
1. The nurse is preparing to administer lithium (Eskalith), to a client with bipolar disorder whose lithium level is 2.0 mEq/L. What symptoms might the nurse expect to see? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.)
Irregular heart rate
1. Which of these effects of opiate analgesics should be considered when formulating a client care plan? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
1. Aspirin could be detrimental in which of these situations? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Client also takes anticoagulants
Client is also pregnant
Client also has rheumatoid arthritis
Client also has a peptic ulcer
Client is a child with a fever
Abnormal Psychology - IB Psychology - Detailed Essay Plans
A 26-page document which has everything you need to fully prepare for the topic Abnormal Psychology. The document has an essay plan for all the possible essay titles, which are:
1. To what extent do biological, cognitive and sociocultural factors influence abnormal behaviour?
2. Evaluate psychological research (that is, theories and/or studies) relevant to the study of abnormal behaviour.
3. Discuss cultural and ethical considerations in diagnosis.
4. Examine the concepts of normality and abnormality.
5. Discuss validity and reliability of diagnosis.
6. Discuss cultural and ethical considerations in diagnosis.
7. Describe symptoms and prevalence of one anxiety/affective/eating disorder.
8. Analyse etiologies (in terms of biological, cognitive and/or sociocultural factors) of one anxiety/affective/eating disorder.
9. Discuss cultural and gender variations in prevalence of disorders.
10. Examine/evaluate biomedical, individual and group approaches to treatment.
11. Discuss the use of eclectic approaches to treatment.
12. Discuss the relationship between etiology and therapeutic approach in relation to one disorder.
Note: I used these notes for my Psychology exams and my final grade was a 7 - they work!