SEJPME I&…. 100% . Grade A.
SEJPME I&…. 100%
401. Military member to maintain a higher standard of conduct than might be accepted in the larger society and are subject to the rules and regulations of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
402. A state of well-being in which one is aware of personal abilities and limits, copes well with life stresses, works productively and effectively, and contributes positively to his or her communities is known as _____. It describes a healthy body, mind, and spirit which can be seen in a person’s ability to deal with typical stressors.
a) Physical fitness
b) Psychological health
c) Post-traumatic stress disorder
d) Personal awareness
403. Exposure to stressful situations, trauma, and combat will cause a response and resulting change. These responses and changes will all be negative.
404. Symptoms of _____ include depression, substance abuse, problems of memory and cognition, and other physical and mental health problems. It is also associated with difficulties in social or family life, including occupational instability, mental problems, family discord, and difficulties in parenting.
a) Post-traumatic stress disorder
b) Psychiatric disorder syndrome
c) Psychological trauma dysfunction
d) Traumatic brain injury
405. Typical signs of _____ include headaches, memory gaps, confusion, attention problems, irritability, ringing in the ears, dizziness, nausea, fatigue, slowed reaction time, sleep difficulty, and performance difficulties.
a) Port-traumatic stress disorder
b) Psychiatric disorder syndrome
c) Psychological dysfunction
d) Traumatic brain injury
406. Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
d) Unity of effort
407. ¬¬¬¬_____ is an integrative and holistic framework to better understand, assess, and maintain the fitness of the joint force.
a) Wounded Warrior Program
b) Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program
c) Physical Fitness Testing (PFT) Program
d) Performance Evaluation Program
408. The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
409. Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others' experiences - both positive and negative.
a) seek out professional assistance
b) know all of the facts
c) acknowledge our own prejudice
d) critically think about
410. Concussion is a term many service members prefer to use instead of "brain injury" when discussing head injuries (mild traumatic brain injuries or mTBI).
411. U.S. Law, Title 10, USC, Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces.
a) Joint Chiefs of Staff
b) Service Chiefs
c) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
d) Secretary of Defense
412. U.S. military service is based on values that U.S. military experience has proven to be vital for operational success. These values adhere to the most idealistic societal norms, are common to all the Services, and represent the essence of military professionalism. The five values we discussed that entail "Joint Service" consist of: duty, honor, courage, integrity, and selfless service.
413. Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
414. The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____.
d) physical courage
415. The ¬¬¬¬¬_____ focuses on planning and execution of operations using operational art to develop strategies, campaigns, and operations and employ military forces by integrating ends, ways, and means.
a) Strategic level
b) Operational level
c) Tactical level
d) Political level
416. Read the following scenario, and as you read it, think about the 12 Principles of Joint Operations. Each principle applies to the described situation in some capacity, but consider their relative importance for this particular scenario. In the boxes provided below, indicate whether the principle listed is MOST RELEVANT or LEAST RELEVANT to the scenario by typing in your response.
A sometimes-ally of the United States requests U.S. support in maintaining stability during an insurgent uprising. The U.S. agrees to lead a multinational peace-keeping force in the volatile country, since supporting the legitimate government adds stability to a key strategic region. The insurgents comprise of a number of radical groups that follow a shared political ideology and collectively seek economic control within the region. They appear to be funded by narcotics cartels and organized crime syndicates in Central and Northern South America. The insurgents use a variety of disruptive, irregular warfare tactics to exert their influence, including the use of Improvised Explosive Devices (IEDs), ambushes on peace-keeping forces, civilian kidnapping, graft, and civilian extortion. U.S. forces have also detected numerous cyber-attacks that appear to originate from insurgent sources; however, none of these have been successful
d) Economy of Force
f) Unity of Command
Which principles did you rank as among the most important? Explain why.
Restraint, perseverance, and legitimacy were ranked among the most important because these principles directly support irregular warfare conditions, such as those described in the scenario. Security was also ranked highly, because the scenario opposition forces use irregular means, such as IEDs and ambush attacks. Next, Economy of Force was ranked among the top principles because stability operations must be carried out with the upmost efficiency, so that the U.S. achieves an optimal return on investment. Finally, because the mission involves a multinational coalition, Unity of Command takes on greater priority; coordination among forces becomes more challenging as a greater number of units, agencies, and countries become involved.
Which principles did you rank as among the least important? Explain why.
Having a clear objective is vital. However, since the strategic objective in this scenario is to maintain stability in an ally's country, developing more detailed operational objectives takes on comparatively less significance. Similarly, since the mission involves stabilization, versus aggression, taking offensive action becomes less important, as is the element of surprise, the exploitation of maneuver, and the concentration of a large mass of combat power. Finally, while simplicity is important (particularly in multinational operations), it is less vital in the described scenario; given the complexity of the situation, simple responses may not be sufficient.
417. The following image is a concept map for you to review. Note that there are several empty boxes on the map labeled "Question 1" through "Question 5". In the boxes provided below, choose the proper concept for each of these empty boxes by typing in your response in the space provided.
Question 1: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Directing, Operations, Security, Communications, or Financing): Security
Question 2: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Share information, Reporting an event, Establishing mutual security, Communicating with leaders in the area, or Counterinsurgency): Share Information
Question 3: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Joint Communications, Joint Maneuvers, Joint Action Planning, Joint Matters, or Joint Forces): Joint Matters vs Joint Force
Question 4: This is the purposeful reliance by one Service on another Service's capabilities to maximize complementary and reinforcing effects of both, with the degree of interdependence varying with specific circumstances. (Joint Agreement, Joint Independence, Joint Interdependence, Joint Dependence, or Joint Cooperation): Joint Interdependence
Question 5: Which of the following concepts best fits this box? (Associate, Develop, Refine, Collaborate, or Synchronize): Synchronize
418. The _____ system provides many things, including means by which the President and the SecDef can receive warnings and intelligence so that accurate and timely decisions can be made.
Nuclear Command and Control
National Military Command
Joint Force Commander’s Communication
419. Think about the module you just completed. What are three things you already knew about this material, three things you learned, and three things you would like to learn more about. Record your answers below:
I already knew
I just learned
I would like to learn more
420. As an example of General vs. Specialized Forces, Navy and Air Force Service members, accustomed to working with enlisted personnel who are specialized technicians, may approach joint staff work from a more _____ perspective than that of their ground Service member counterparts.
a) Technical or managerial
421. A _____ is a series of related major operations aimed at achieving strategic and operational objectives within a given time and space.
422. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to defend national interests, not only in conflict but through preventative measures to deter potential adversaries who could threaten the vital interests of the U.S. or its partners.
a) Provide a stabilizing presence
b) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges
c) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent
d) Deter and defeat aggression
423. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is composed of significant assigned components of two or more Military Departments.
a) Specified Combatant Command
b) Unified Combatant Command
c) Subordinate Unified Command
d) Joint Task Force
424. _____ is the employment of available weapons and other systems to create a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target.
a) Movement and maneuver
b) Command and control
c) Joint fires
425. A functional Component Command has many favorable factors associated with it, including reduced span of control, integrated planning, unity of effort, and _____.
a) control over the scheme of maneuver
b) responsible for service-specific functions
c) comprised of service forces
d) decreased combat efficiency
426. Differences between the Services in career paths leading up to a joint assignment may surprise new staff Service members in joint assignments. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services?
a) Prior experience working with senior officers vs. little or none
b) Centralized vs. decentralized approach
c) Static vs. dynamic mission sets
d) General vs. specialized enlisted forces
427. _____ are the broad and enduring purposes for which the Services and the Combatant commands (or CCMDs) were established by law.
428. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to conduct a sustainable pace of presence operations abroad, including rotational deployments and bilateral and multilateral training exercises.
a) Deter and defeat aggression
b) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent
c) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges
d) Provide a stabilizing presence
430. Some services have an emphasis that vacillates between combat, law enforcement, and safety patrols. This demonstrates which key element to remember when working with other services?
a) centralized vs. decentralized approach
b) base-centric vs. ship-centric
c) static vs. dynamic mission sets
d) size and capacity vs. speed and flexibility
431. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This type of command is established by unified combatant commanders, and conducts operations on continuing basis using specified criteria.
a) Specified Combatant Command
b) Unified Combatant Command
c) Joint Task Force
d) Subordinate Unified Command
432. Select the answer that matches the following definition. This purpose of joint operations is to maintain an arsenal capable of deterring potential adversaries and to assure U.S. allies and other security partners that they can count on America's security commitments.
a) Project power despite anti-access/area denial challenges
b) Maintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent
c) Deter and defeat aggression
d) Provide a stabilizing presence
433. The _____ exercise ADCON through their respective Service Chiefs over the Service.
a) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
b) Functional Combatant Commanders
c) Secretaries of the Military Departments
d) Combatant Commanders
434. Technology is often applied against what common analyst concern?
a) Information overload
b) CCIR management
c) Subjective assessments
d) Replacing cross staff collaboration
435. Which of the following statements highlights the critical features of intelligence?
a) Allows anticipation or prediction of future situations and circumstances
b) Provides raw, factual information on a wide variety of subjects
c) Informs decisions by illuminating the differences in available courses of action
d) Contributes to or shapes the commander’s decision making process
436. Analysis is a synthesis of quantitate analysis and qualitative judgement and therefore rarely subject to competing interpretations.
437. What is the primary role of the joint force J2?
a) To inform the commander
b) To analyze data
c) To collect data and relate data from a wide spectrum into usable information
d) To manage collection assets to maximize data collection across the operational environment
438. Commanders use intelligence to _____. (Select all that apply)
a) Support a predictive estimation of the situation
b) Understand adversary capabilities and intentions
c) Visualize and understand all dimensions of the OE
439. Which of the following are true when forming priority intelligence requirements (select all that apply)
a) PIRs are subject for which there is a need to collect information or produce intelligence
b) Staff must be aware of intelligence requirements of higher, adjacent, subordinate and supporting elements
c) The JFC’s PIRs should prioritize the most urgent intelligence requirements.
d) All of the above
440. After intelligence requirements are established, the staff reviews existing databases for answers to requirements. Then, if the intelligence requirement does not exist, the _____.
a) Staff issues a request for information
b) Staff collects information themselves
c) Staff rejects JFC’s PIR
d) JFC refines the PIR to match available intelligence
441. What is the definition of collection requirements management?
a) Matching intelligence collection requirements with appropriate collection capabilities
b) Analyzing the priority intelligence requirements against existing elements of essential information]
c) Matching the commander’s critical information requirements with the other intelligence operations
d) Synchronizes the timing of collection with the operational scheme of maneuver and with other intelligence operations
442. Why does collection planning require the ability to call on a variety of collection sources?
a) To allow flexible tasking of assets
b) To minimize the effects of enemy deception
c) To ensure subordinate units maintain situational awareness of PIRs
d) To provide spare assets on call in event of cancellations
443. Doctrinal, manning, and organizational considerations are what part of the joint intelligence architecture planning process?
a) Systems architecture planning
b) Operational architecture planning
c) Technical architecture planning
d) Logistical architecture planning
444. Intelligence dissemination requirements and procedures must be coordinated through the _____.
a) Communications directorate of the J6
b) Joint force command J3
c) Joint force command J2
d) Joint Collection Management Board
445. What role(s) is responsible for providing maps, charts, digitized products, and precise geodetic coordinates?
a) The Intelligence Officer (J2)
b) The Geospatial Information and Service Officer
c) The Intelligence Analysts and Targeteers
d) The Collection Managers
446. The joint intelligence preparation of the environment (JPOE) consists of four steps.
Step 1 Analyze the adversary and other relevant aspects of the operational environment
Step 2 Describe the impact of the operational environment on the adversary and friendly courses of actions (COAs)
Step 3 Evaluate the capabilities of adversary forces operating in the operational environment
Step 4 Determine and describe potential adversary COAs and civilian activities that might impact military operations
447. Dissemination of information can sometimes be defined by a strategy called Push and Pull. Pull refers to which of the following:
a) Involves direct electronic access to databases, intelligence files, or other repositories by intelligence organizations at all levels
b) Refers to validating information from multiple sources
c) Allows the higher echelons to move intelligence down to satisfy existing lower echelon requirements or to relay other relevant information to the lower level.
d) Indicates information that is pulled from raw data that cannot be validated
448. Intelligence definitions:
g. Warning Intelligence – Focuses on the opportunities to counter and alter only those threats that have detrimental effects for the U.S. (including U.S. military or political decision cycles, infrastructure, COA, or loss of governance). Provides a distinct communication to a decision maker about threats against U.S. security, interests, or citizens; carries a sense of urgency, implying the decision maker should take action to deter or mitigate the threat's impact.
a. Current Intelligence – Involves the integration of time-sensitive, all-source intelligence and information into concise, objective reporting on the current situation in a particular area. Involves the integration of time-sensitive, all-source intelligence and information into concise, objective reporting on the current situation in a particular area.
h. General Military Intelligence – Supports the requirements to quickly respond to differing crisis situations with corresponding intelligence spanning the globe. Focuses on the military capabilities of foreign countries and organizations to include non-state actors, and other topics that could affect potential US or multinational military operations.
f. Target Intelligence - Identifies and nominates specific COGs and HVTs that, if exploited in a systematic manner, will create the desired effects and support accomplishment of the commander’s objectives. Portrays and locates the components of a target or target complex, networks, and support infrastructure, and indicates its vulnerability and relationship to the enemy Centers of Gravity (COG); consists of analysis of physical and virtual attributes and signatures as well as Battle Damage Assessment (BDA) resulting from the application of lethal or non-lethal military force.
b. Scientific and Technical Intelligence - Comprises characteristics, capabilities, vulnerabilities, and limitations of all weapon systems, subsystems, and associated material, as well as related research and development. Examines foreign developments in basic and applied sciences and technologies with warfare potential, particularly enhancements to weapon systems; addresses overall weapon systems, tactics analysis, and equipment effectiveness.
d. Counterintelligence – Analyzes the threats posed by foreign intelligence and security services, and the intelligence activities if non-state actors such as organized crime, terrorist groups, and drug traffickers. Information gathered and activities conducted to identify, deceive, exploit, disrupt, or protect against espionage, other intelligence activities, sabotage, or assassinations conducted for or on behalf of foreign powers, organizations, or persons, or their agents, or international terrorist organizations or activities.
e. Estimative Intelligence – Reaches beyond descriptions of adversary capabilities or reporting of enemy activity to forecast the unknown based on an analysis of known facts using pattern analysis, inference, and statistical probability techniques. Forecasts of current or potential situations with implications for planning and executing military operations; includes a description of relevant actors' capabilities, and reporting of their activities, and it analyzes known factors using techniques such as pattern analysis, inference, and statistical probability to address unresolved variables.
c. Identity Intelligence – Results from the fusion of identity attributes (biologic, biographic, behavioral, and individuals) and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines. Results from the fusion of identity attributes (biologic, biographic, behavioral, and reputational information related to individuals) and other information and intelligence associated with those attributes collected across all intelligence disciplines.
449. What level of intelligence is produced for the President, Congress, Secretary of Defense, senior military leaders, and combatant commanders?
b) National strategic
c) National security
d) Theater strategic
450. An intelligence report is received by the JFC detailing the capabilities and safe houses of an extremist group operating in its area of regard. What type of intelligence does this represent?
a) Tactical intelligence
b) Theater strategic intelligence
c) Operational intelligence
d) Human intelligence
451. To be successful, a joint force commander must be able to influence and coordinate a diverse coalition of joint and multinational forces as well as civilian agencies and groups. What are some of the civilian groups the FRC must consider? Select all that apply.
a) Nongovernmental organizations
b) State and local militias
c) Multinational forces
d) Host nation agencies
452. Prior to planning for operations in support of the JFC OPLAN, a briefing is presented to the planning staff concerning the environmental conditions, layout of adversarial forces and their relationship with rural communities and leaders, as well as the history of relationship between the local population and foreigners. Which one of the ten principles of intelligence does this represent?
453. Assuming the truism that intelligence is imperfect, what is the best way to minimize the obstacles to achieve a high degree of fidelity in the products of intelligence?
a) Anticipating the changing operational environment and focusing collection efforts to support ongoing operations54.
b) Collaborating with allies and coalition partners who posses niche expertise and alternative perspectives that compliment joint force intelligence environment
c) Staffing efforts to achieve a mix of skills and characteristics that enable them to remain responsive to a changing environment
d) Constantly strive to maintain the highest possible standards of excellence
454. Which of the following intelligence principles is described as the process of collecting and examining information from available sources and intelligence disciplines to derive as complete an assessment as possible.
b) Unity of effort
455. Principles of intelligence:
Synchronization – Requires that all intelligence sources and methods be applied in concert with the operations plan and operations order.
Prediction – Vulnerable to incomplete information and adversary deception, but should never be avoided because it helps JFCs determine enemy intentions and capabilities.
Collaboration – Relies on unhindered access to and sharing of all relevant information and can take many forms such as competitive analysis, brain storming, and federation.
Fusion - Relies in a finished intelligence product that provides the most accurate and complete picture possible of what is known about an activity.
456. Identify the national intelligence member that has overall responsibility for intelligence support to the President and the day-to-day management of the intelligence community.
a) Director of the Central Intelligence Agency
b) Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence
c) Director of National Intelligence
d) Director of the Defense Intelligence Agency
457. Which of the following national intelligence leadership positions advises the Secretary of Defense and Deputy Secretary of Defense, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, combatant commanders (CCDRs), and USD(I) on all matters concerning military and military-related intelligence?
a) Director of the Defense Intelligence Agency
b) Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence
c) Director of National Intelligence
d) Joint Staff Directorate for Intelligence, J2
458. Which of the following intelligence communities is responsible for providing intelligence support in areas such as human factors analysis, counterterrorism, personal recovery, and noncombatant evacuation operations?
a) Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
b) National Security Agency (NSA)
c) Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
d) Central Security Service (CSS)
459. Which of the following non-DoD intelligence communities supports HUMINT collection, all source analysis, and political, economic, and biographic intelligence?
a) Department od State (DOS) Bureau of Intelligence and Research
b) Department of Energy (DOE)
c) Federal Bureau Investigation (FBI)
d) Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
460. The _____ is the primary intelligence organization that provides support to the combatant commands at the operational and tactical levels.
a) National Intelligence Support Team (NIST)
b) Joint Intelligence Operations Center (JIOC)
c) Defense Joint Intelligence Operations Center (DJOC)
d) Joint Intelligence Support Element (JISE)
461. The intelligence component of the National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center (NJIOC) provides planning, management, and infrastructure for intelligence working groups and intelligence task forces that provide direct intelligence support during major conflicts.
462. JIPOE Steps:
DIA – Intelligence support provided includes, but is not limited to, all-source military analysis, human factors analysis, HUMINT, MASINT, MEDINT, CI, counterterrorism, chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear counterproliferation, counterdrug operations, and personnel recovery
NSA/CSS – A unified organization that provides for the SIGNIT mission of the U.S. to ensure the protection of national security systems for all departments and agencies of the U.S. Government
NGA – Provides timely, relevant and accurate GEOINT support to IMINT, geospatial information, national imagery collection management, commercial imagery, imagery-derived MSAINT, and some meteorological and oceanographic data and information
NRO – Responsible for integrating unique and innovative space-based reconnaissance technologies and the engineering, development, acquisition, and operation of space reconnaissance systems and related intelligence activities
463. Joint intelligence planning supports joint operation planning and results in the production of what three products?
a) Dynamic Threat Assessment
b) Annex B: Intelligence
c) Contingency Plan
d) National Intelligence Support Plan
464. Advance scouts report that a key bridge crossing is being defended by two tank platoons supported by a reinforced infantry brigade. Which of the following type of intelligence does this represent?
d) Theater strategic
465. What principle of intelligence is most susceptible to incomplete information and enemy deception efforts?
466. This intelligence product category forecasts current or potential situations with implications for planning and executing military operations.
a) Target Intelligence
b) Current Intelligence
c) Estimative Intelligence
d) Warning Intelligence
467. Which of the following are tasks that the J2 performs? (Select all that apply.)
a) Assesses the characteristics of the adversary's decision-making process and identifies weaknesses that may be exploited
b) Produces threat assessments on a continuing basis to help the commander create or exploit opportunities to accomplish friendly force objectives
c) Analyzes the adversary and other relevant aspects of the operational environment
d) Ensures that critical intelligence is disseminated appropriately in a timely manner to the joint force commanders (JFCs), staff, and components
468. The JTF J2 should have personnel knowledgeable in foreign disclosure policy and procedures and should obtain necessary foreign disclosure authorization from DIA as soon as possible.
469. Which of the following roles must be well versed with timelines required to complete a required product and able to obtain the aid of external resources in acquiring needed intelligence?
a) J2 Collection Manager
b) Intelligence Analysts
470. Collection activities acquire and extract data from the operational environment such that Processing and Exploitation can convert that data into information to be used during Analysis and Production to refine into _____ to satisfy Requests for Information (RFI) or the commander's Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIR).
c) data fee
471. What two features distinguish intelligence from information?
a) Allows anticipation or prediction of future situations and circumstances
b) Contributes to or shapes the commander's decision making process
c) Consists of the synthesis of quantitative analysis and qualitative judgment with an assigned degree of coincidence to the analytical conclusion
d) Provides raw, factual information on a wide variety of subjects
472. The Commander's Critical Information Requirements represent both Friendly Force Information requirements and _____, which are derived from the intelligence organization and vetted across staff.
a) identified collection gaps
b) mission analysis identified requests for information
c) priority intelligence requirements (PIR)
d) threat assessments
473. Military operations vary in scope, purpose, and _____ across a range that spans from military engagement to major operations and campaigns.
a) Conflict intensity
b) End state
c) Expected outcome
474. _____ is the protection of U.S. sovereignty, territory, domestic population, and critical defense infrastructure against external threats and aggressive or other treats as directed by the President.
a) Civil support
b) Peace operations
c) Homeland defense
d) Combating terrorism
475. By arranging operations and activities into phases, the JFC can better integrate and _____ subordinate operations in time, space, and purpose.
476. Which of the following are effective means to achieve deterrence? (Select all that apply.)
a) Foster a climate of peaceful cooperation
b) Ensure joint operations forces are ready to conduct decisive operations
c) Develop a Security Cooperation Plan
d) Remove forces from area
477. _____prevents an adversarial action by presenting a credible threat of counteraction. This activity can occur during both peace and war.
c) Foreign humanitarian assistance
d) Security cooperation
478. Which of the following statements accurately reflect crisis and limited contingency operations? (Select all that apply,)
a) Are part of the JFC’s OPLAN
b) Are used to restore stability in a nation where internal conflict threatens regional stability
c) Must achieve a very specific or operational objective
d) Are conducted to achieve tactical objectives
479. Executive Order 12656, Assignment of Emergency Preparedness Responsibilities, delegates DoD to advise and assist DOS in preparing and implementing plans for _____.
a) Non-combat evacuation
b) Foreign internal defense
c) Foreign humanitarian assistance
d) Military support
480. A(n) _____, such as foreign humanitarian assistance, can be a major operation if the combination of size, scope, and duration requires the commander to phase the operation as a set of tasks, activities, and missions over time.
b) Noncombat operation
d) Combat operation
481. To achieve military strategic objectives quickly and at least cost, JFCs normally will seek the earliest opportunity to conduct decisive _____ operations.
482. Which of the following are some of the key elements of the shape phase of joint operations? (Select all that apply.)
a) Organizing and training
b) Conduct of rehearsals
c) Stability operations
d) Balance and simultaneity
483. _____ contributions provide operational leverage by gathering critical information, undermining a potential adversary’s will or capacity to wage war, and enhancing the capabilities of conventional U.S. or multinational forces.
484. The “Seize the Initiative” phase of joint operations seeks decision advantage by using all available elements of combat power to: (Select all that apply.)
a) Seize and maintain the initiative
b) Deny the enemy the opportunity to achieve its objectives
c) Generate in the enemy a sense of inevitable failure and defeat
d) Denounce enemy military by using propaganda to turn public against their military or leadership
485. When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations, they chose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describes a typical sustained offensive and defensive operation against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces combat power and protects sustainment functions?
a) Linear operations in contiguous AOs
b) Linear operations in noncontiguous AOs
c) Nonlinear operations in contiguous AOs
d) Nonlinear operations in noncontiguous AOs
486. During stability operations, it is critical to avoid inadvertently legitimizing an individual or organization in a country where no government exists.
487. During the enable civil authority phase of operations, the JFC may be required to transfer responsibility of operations to another as the termination criteria.
488. Using the following image of the Joint Operations Phasing Model, provide a response (Deter, Dominate, Enable, Seize, Shape, or Stabilize) for each of the phases below labeled "1" through "6".
a) Phase 1: Deter
b) Phase 2: Seize
c) Phase 3: Stabilize
d) Phase 4: Dominate
e) Phase 5: Enable
f) Phase 6: Shape
489. Identify the term (Deter, Dominate, Enable, Seize, Shape, or Stabilize), that corresponds to each of the definitions below.
a) This phase, while preparatory in nature, may include mobilization and initial deployment into a theater. Deter
b) This phase includes denying the enemy its initial objectives. Seize
c) This phase may require the joint force to perform limited local governance, and integrate the efforts of other supporting inter-organizational partners until legitimate local entities are functioning. Stabilize
d) This phase's success depends on overmatching enemy capabilities at the critical time and place. Dominate
e) This phase is focused on helping the civil authority stabilize and begin to administer services to the populace. Enable
f) This phase is executed continuously, and may mitigate conditions that could lead to a crisis. Shape
490. A _______ may be appropriate when the contemplated military operations exceed the scope of a single major operation.
c) large-scale combat operation
d) strategic objective
491. Campaigns are _____.
a) the most extensive of joint operations
b) service oriented
c) independently embarked on
d) low in resource requirements
492. Establishing and maintaining access to operational areas where joint forces are likely to operate is an action in the _____ phase.
493. _____ generally are governed by various directives and agreements and do not require a joint operation plan (OPLAN) or operation order (OPORD) for execution.
a) Advance measures
b) Continuity of operations
c) Commitment of forces
d) Engagement activities
494. If the crisis is caused by a(n) _____ that threatens regional stability, U.S. forces may intervene to restore or guarantee stability.
b) credible threat
c) internal conflict
d) external threat
495. Operation RESTORE HOPE in Somalia was a crisis response operation which required _____ to protect U.S. forces while accomplishing the mission.
a) combat operations
b) deterrence activities
c) security cooperation
d) major campaigns
496. _____ ensure(s) DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place to support the President and Secretary of Defense in a national security emergency.
a) Commitment of forces
b) Engagement activities
c) Continuity of operations
d) Advance measures
497. _____ is DoD support to U.S. Government actions that plan for, prepare for, respond to, and recover from the effects of domestic and foreign chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear incidents.
a) Civil support
b) Recovery operations
c) Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear consequence management
d) Homeland defense
498. _____ contain conflict, redress the peace, and shape the environment to support reconciliation and rebuilding and facilitate the transition to legitimate governance.
a) Peace operations
b) Recovery operations
c) Stability operations
d) Foreign humanitarian assistance
499. _____ is/are DoD's unified effort to support and augment the development of the capacity and capability of foreign security forces and their supporting institutions to facilitate the achievement of specific objectives shared by the U.S. Government.
a) Foreign humanitarian assistance
b) Security force assistance
c) Civic assistance programs
d) Stability operations
500. _____ operations can include the provision of emergency infrastructure reconstruction.
501. The scope of a(n) _____ or limited contingency operation is by its nature different in scope than a full-scale operation.
a) crisis response
b) peacekeeping operation
502. Executive Order 12656, Assignment of Emergency Preparedness Responsibilities, delegates DoD to advise and assist DOS in preparing and implementing plans for _____.
a) foreign humanitarian assistance
b) non-combat evacuation
c) foreign internal defense
d) military support
503. _____ is generally limited in scope and duration because it is intended to supplement or complement efforts of civil authorities or agencies with the primary responsibility for providing assistance.
a) Civil defense
b) Foreign internal defense
d) Foreign humanitarian assistance
504. To achieve military strategic objectives quickly and at least cost, JFCs normally will seek the earliest opportunity to conduct decisive _____ operations.
505. _____ contributions provide operational leverage by gathering critical information, undermining a potential adversary's will or capacity to wage war, and enhancing the capabilities of conventional U.S. or multinational forces.
506. U. S. Forces may be required to engage in several types of joint operations simultaneously, across a range of military operations. Commanders combine and sequence offensive, defensive, and _____ operations to achieve objectives.
b) crisis response
507. Supporting the conditions for economic reconstruction is an action in the _____ phase.
508. When JFCs consider incorporating combinations of contiguous and noncontiguous AOs with linear and nonlinear operations, they choose the combination that fits the operational environment and the purpose of the operation. Which of the following combinations describe a typical sustained offensive and defensive operation against powerful, echeloned, and symmetrically organized forces and where the forward line of own troops focus combat power and protect sustainment functions?
a) linear operations in noncontiguous AOs
b) nonlinear operations in contiguous AOs
c) nonlinear operations in noncontiguous AOs
d) linear operations in contiguous AOs
509. _____ are DoD activities, normally in support of the United States Agency for International Development or the Department of State, conducted outside the U.S., its territories, and possessions, to relieve or reduce human suffering, disease, hunger, or privation.
a) Stability operations
b) Civil support
c) Foreign humanitarian assistance
d) Foreign internal defense
510. Military engagement occurs as part of _____, but also extends to interaction with domestic civilian authorities.
a) civil defense
c) security cooperation
511. If the crisis revolves around _____ to a regional partner, combat commanders employ joint forces to deter aggression and signal U.S. commitment
a) internal conflict
b) credible threats
c) coup d'etat
d) external threats
512. Joint Logisticians coordinate sustained logistic readiness through the integrating functions of _____.
a) Translating strategic guidance, developing operational concepts, and assessing logistic plans
b) Planning, executing, and controlling joint logistic operations
c) Unity of effort, environment-wide visibility, and rapid and precise response
d) Organizing for execution, achieving situational awareness, and designating lead Service responsibilities
513. Which of the following key global providers is responsible for recruiting, organizing, supplying, and maintaining ready forces for deployment?
b) Defense Logistics Agency (DLS) Service
c) Joint Staff
514. Which of the following joint logistic imperatives links the mission, commander’s intent, and operational objectives to core logistic capabilities, procedures, and organizations?
515. Which of the following statements describes the “supply” functional capability within joint logistics?
a) The joint logistician manages supplies and equipment, inventory, and supplier networks
b) The joint logistician manages people, material, and transportation
c) The join logistician balances Commander’s Critical Information Requirements (CCIRs) with risk, force availability, and unit readiness.
d) The logistician develops plans, studies, feasibility, and identifies who is responsible for executing the plan.
516. The purpose if field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness.
517. Which statement describes the difference between the responsibilities of the supported combatant commander (CCDR) and the supporting CCDR?
a) The supported CCDR establishes a collaborative process, whereas the supporting CCDR determines preemployment standards.
b) The supported CCDR regulates the transportation flow of support personnel, whereas the supporting CCDR regulates the force flow based on strategic, operational, and tactical control.
c) The supported CCDR builds and validates force and movement requirements, whereas the supporting CCDR reports force movement requirements data.
518. Match each core capability with the correct description.
Use the following terms to answer questions 1 - 7 below: Logistics Services; Operational contract Support; Health Services Support; Deployment and Distribution; Supply; Maintenance Operations; or Engineering Operations.
Question 1: ______ provides managed materiel inventories that are determined through deliberate collaboration with maintenance and distribution providers to optimize the end effect of the supply chain to the warfighter. Supply
Question 2: ______ provides life cycle systems readiness capability that enables the requirements, acquisition and sustainment communities to provide systems with optimal availability and reliability to the joint warfighter at best value to the Services. Maintenance Operations
Question 3: ______ supports the materiel movement during logistical sustainment of operations. Deployment and Distribution
Question 4: ______ promotes individual practices that prevent or correct any human condition that would impair or preclude the joint force from achieving its objectives. Health Services Support
Question 5: ______ force multiplier that helps commander integrate, synchronize and direct operations. Engineering Operations
Question 6: ______ comprised of disparate activities that enable the global sustainment for military forces. Logistics Services
Question 7: ______ensures that the Service is augmented by military and government sources of support, that the support is orchestrated and manage and that visibility is maintained. Operational Contract Support
519. Within the Personnel Services Division, which support organization is responsible for maintaining personal data of Service members related to their employment?
a) Financial Management
b) Religious Ministry
c) Human Resources
d) Legal Support
520. Which two of the following describe J1 functions? (Select all that apply)
a) The J1 participates in all applicable planning and assessment process
b) The J1 advises joint logistic requirements and requires various nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) to support all of these
c) The J1 coordinates with higher, supporting, and subordinate manpower and personnel directories
521. Once a Mission is defined by the SecDef, the joint task force (jtf) headquarters identifies its personnel requirements. These requirements are summarized in the _____.
a) Global Force Management Plan
b) Concept of Operations (CONOPS)
c) Joint Manning Document
d) Operation Plan (OPLAN)
522. The President and SecDef are responsible for assigning forces to specified combatant commands.
523. Who is responsible for the organization and employment of legal personnel assigned or attached to a joint task force (JTF) headquarters?
a) Joint Force Commander
b) Staff Judge Advocate
d) Geographic Combatant Commander
524. Staff Judge Advocates (SHAs) are responsible for _____/ (Select all that apply)
a) Developing the organizational structure for their sections
b) Understanding the legal support requirements of the joint task force (JTF) to which they are assigned
c) Identifying the personnel requirements for their sections
d) Operating on a sustained 24-hour battle rhythm
525. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 1 – Assignment is:
b) SecDef and Secretaries of Military Departments
c) Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff
526. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 2 – Appointment is:
b) SecDef and Secretaries of Military Departments
c) Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff
527. The responsible personnel for Global Force Management Process 3 – Allocation is:
b) SecDef and Secretaries of Military Departments
c) Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff
528. An environment in which operations may or may not be opposed at any point during deployment by forces or individuals not under the host government’s control in a/an _____environment.
529. Which stage of the protection process assembles and organizes national resources to support national objectives in time of war or any other emergency?
a) Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI)
530. Who is responsible for assigning forces and resources to combatant commands?
a) Supporting Combatant Commander
b) Commander, Joint Chief of Staff
c) Supported Combatant Commander
531. Who is responsible for organizing, training, equipping, and providing administrative and logistic support for forces?
b) Military Departments
c) Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)
d) Supported Combatant Commander (CCDR)
532. Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply)
a) Deployment planning
c) Redeployment activities
533. Which of the following reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) elements are defined as “enabling”? (Select all that apply.)
a) Force protection
b) Multinational support
c) Contract support
d) Legal support
534. Redeployment encompasses which of the following phases? (Select all that apply.)
b) Redeployment activities
d) Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI)
535. Which of the following are issues considered during redeployment planning? (Select all that apply.)
a) Intelligence preparation
c) Infrastructure assessment
d) Force health protection
536. Which of the following is described as the quality or capability of military forces that permits them to transition from place to place while retaining their ability to fulfill their primary mission?
537. The purpose of the personnel estimate is to _____. (Select all that apply.)
a) identify the most appropriate forces that best meet the SecDef's requirements
b) apportion forces to the combatant commander
c) develop the most effective solution to a problem
d) collect and analyze relevant information
538. The movement phase of deployment is comprised of which of the following three segments?
a) POE operations
b) maintain, repair, or sustain equipment
c) POE to port of debarkation (POD)
d) origin to air or sea ports of embarkation (POE)
539. Which of the following is described as the ability to project the military instrument of national power?
a) Global force management
b) Operation plan (OPLAN)
c) Concept of operations (CONOPS)
d) Global force projection
540. Which of the following are phases of the deployment process? (Select all that apply.)
a) Deployment planning
c) Predeployment activities
541. Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) is defined as the process of offloading, marshalling, and transporting personnel, equipment, and materiel?
d) Onward movement
542. During which phase of projection are forces and materiel transferred to support another joint force commander's operational requirements?
b) Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI)
543. The operational environment is generally described by which of the following conditions?
a) tolerant, liberal, and autocratic
b) foreign, native, and unrestricted
c) strategic, tactical, and dictated
d) permissive, uncertain, and hostile
544. Which of the segments of joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) is defined as the process of synchronizing the transfer of capabilities into an operational commander's force?
b) Onward movement
545. When identifying support activities during pre-redeployment, redeploying forces _____.
a) perform all personnel, supply, and inspection activities
b) confirm readiness and available movement dates
c) must be supported with medical care, life support, supplies, and materiel
d) may move to a designated staging area to prepare
16) The purpose of field maintenance operations is to repair, modify, rebuild, and overhaul both entire systems and components and is directly linked to life cycle systems readiness.
17) Which of the following types of plans describes the most probable outcomes of a mission and identifies force requirements?
a) Operation plan (OPLAN)
b) Crisis Plan
c) Concept of operations (CONOPS)
d) Contingency Plan
18) The joint logistics environment (JLE) exists within the _____ environment and consists of _____ that affect the employment of logistic capabilities.
a) strategic; authorities, logistic providers, and imperatives
b) strategic; operation plans, service capabilities, and climates
c) operational; conditions, circumstances, and influences
d) tactical; situations, provisions, and restrictions
19) Who is responsible for the organization and employment of legal personnel assigned or attached to a joint task force headquarters?
a) Joint Force Commander
b) Geographic Combatant Commander
c) Staff Judge Advocate
20) While employed, the Staff Judge Advocate ensures that the joint force commander understands the _____.
a) requirements from host nations for a transparent legal environment in which to conduct joint operations
b) laws, treaties, and agreements that apply to U.S. relations with the foreign governments and their inhabitants
c) cultures and religious beliefs that impact U.S. relationships with the foreign inhabitants
d) traffic laws and ports of entry requirements that impact transportation of personnel and materiel into the foreign nation
21) Which stage of the projection process is identified by the movement of forces within the operational areas (OAs), the positioning of forces into a formation for battle, or the relocation of forces and materiel to a different OA?
22) During the joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI) phase of redeployment, destination reception refers to _____.
a) preparing the force for the next crisis
b) recovering the unit's assigned personnel and equipment
c) tracking the force to determine exact location of personnel, equipment, and materiel
d) transporting forces via a common user or commercial lift from a port of debarkation (POD) to a demobilization station
23) Which of the following describe the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff's (CJCS's) responsibilities? (Select all that apply.)
a) Monitors the capabilities of United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
b) Prescribes a movement priority system to ensure responsiveness to meet the needs of the combatant commander (CCDR)
c) Prepares joint logistic and mobility plans to support joint operation plans (OPLANS)
d) Reviews the CCDR's plans and programs to determine adequacy, consistency, acceptability, and feasibility to perform the assigned mission
24) Which statement describes the difference between the responsibilities of the supported combatant commander (CCDR) and the supporting CCDR?
a) The supported CCDR establishes a collaborative process, whereas the supporting CCDR must prioritize mission, align forces, and consider planned theater distribution.
b) The supported CCDR ensures units retain visibility and mobility, whereas the supporting CCDR determines predeployment standards.
c) The supported CCDR builds and validates force and movement requirements, whereas the supporting CCDR reports force movement requirements data.
d) The supported CCDR regulates the transportation flow of support personnel, whereas the supporting CCDR regulates the force flow based on strategic, operational, and tactical control.
25) Which three of the following when combined are some of the functions that comprise core capabilities of joint logistics?
a) battle rhythm
c) situational awareness
d) maintenance operations
e) health service support
26) Within the Personnel Services Division, which support organization is responsible for maintaining personal data of Service members related to their employment?
a) Human Resources
b) Religious Ministry
c) Legal Support
d) Financial Management
Summary of Ecosystems made from the lecture slides. Provides terminology, ecosystem structure and processes, cycling of elements, ecosystems as systems, flow of energy, laws of thermodynamics, impossible ecosystem, energy flow, biological production and biomass, energy efficiency, ecological stability and succession, how species facilitate succession, nutrient cycling and succession.
ENV101 Energy concepts, fossil fuels and the environment
Summary of Energy concepts, fossil fuels and the environment. Includes energy crisis in ancient times, energy basis, energy efficiency, fossil fuels, formation of natural gas and oil, formation of coal, types of coal, recovery of oil, other fossil fuels, environmental effects of oil and natural gas, environmental effects of coal.
Single cylinder engine heat balancing
Heat is the form of energy which can be converted to another useful form. An internal combustion engine transforms the chemical energy of the fuel into heat energy and uses this energy to produce mechanical work. Heat balancing is done in order to know the distribution of heat so that the losses can be minimized to improve the engine efficiency.
Samenvatting Duurzame Leefomgeving, Compartimenten (Jaar 1 Blok 1)
Samenvatting van de 18e druk van het boek Living in the Environment, geschreven door G. Tyler Miller & Scott E. Spoolman. Gemaakt in het studiejaar 2017/2018 voor het vak Duurzame Leefomgeving: Compartimenten uit Blok 1 van Jaar 1 van de opleiding Landscape and Environment Management op InHolland Delft. Bevat aantekeningen van de hoofdstukken 15 (Nonrenewable Energy); 16 (Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy); 18 (Air Pollution); en 19 (Climate Disruption). Gemaakt door Bart van der Sande (Tweedejaars LEM-student)
Unit 3 - Matter
This is the whole chapter in a pdf. Most students have a hard time studying off the text book using the syllabus. This pdf just combines them both to make your life easier.
BSBSUS401 Implement & monitor environmentally sustainable work practices
What is the purpose of National Greenhouse & Energy Reporting Legislation?
1. What is the purpose of Environment Protection & Biodiversity Conservation Legislation?
2. What is the Kyoto Protocol?
3. Who has the prime responsibility for environmental protection?
4. How do organisations know how to behave ethically in regards to sustainability?
What process might an assessor follow when analysing procedures to ensure compliance with
1. environmental regulations?
2. How might an assessor conduct an assessment?
1. What is resource efficiency?
2. What is an Environmental Management System?
3. How can a work group be engaged in disseminating environmental and resource efficiency information?
1. Explain the differences between qualitative and quantitative information.
2. What do you think are the advantages of presenting analysed data in graphical format, rather than a written report?
3. Your organisation is interested in analysing and organising information about the amount of paper it uses. Convert the data provided into a format that is easily used.
1. What are the goals of resource usage assessments? Give at least 6 examples.
2. List the steps (in order) that need to be taken when carrying out a resource usage assessment.
1. Identify 5 benefits of environmental purchasing.
1. How can organisations ensure that work processes meet environmental requirements and identify areas in which changes need to be made? Give at least 6 examples.
2. What is problem solving in the context of environmental work processes and what is its aim/s?
1. List at least 5 various ways that organisations can access stakeholder input.
1. What are the advantages of joining an industry association? List two examples.
2. What are the advantages of joining an environmental program? Give 2 examples.
1. What is the hierarchy of control?
2. Rearrange the controls in their correct order, as specified in the hierarchy of control:
Administration, Elimination, Engineering, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and Substitution.
1. What are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)?
2. What five criteria should be met when creating targets?
3. Identify what is wrong with the following targets and rewrite them so they conform to SMART criteria.
a. The Absolute Advertising Agency will reduce its paper waste.
b. The Fish Factory will reduce its energy consumption to zero in the next month.
1. Identify five things a business could do to reduce its energy consumption.
2. Identify five things an organisation could do to reduce its waste.
1. Identify the four steps of the continuous improvement cycle.
2. Identify five things an organisation can do to improve the performance of its employees.
1. Explain why it is a good idea to integrate environmental procedures and practices with pre-existing organisation procedures and practices.
2. What needs to be done when existing procedures or work practices are changed or new procedures and work practices are introduced?
Define the term “Engagement”.
Engagement is the emotional commitment the employee has to the organization and its goals. It relates to a state of involvement and participation.
1. Why is it important to ensure that employees do not become disengaged?
2. What are the benefits of having a diverse team?
1. List at least six people/groups who might make up an organisations stakeholders.
2. Each stakeholder will have different areas of expertise. Complete the table by providing reasons that an organisation should seek suggestions & ideas about their environmental and resource efficiency management for each of the listed stakeholders.
1. A school is thinking about installing low-flush toilets in all of its bathrooms and air hand-driers to replace paper towel dispensers. Purchasing new toilets for the entire school will cost $22,000. It will need to employ plumbers to fit the toilets at a cost of $9,500. It is estimated that this will save the school $16,000 in water consumption fees. The hand driers will cost $13,500. The cost of employing electricians to install the hand driers will come to $4,400. As the school will no longer have to purchase paper towels, it will save $7,300 per year. It also estimates it will save $1,000 a year in cleaning costs, as the bathrooms will take less time to clean, and bins will need to be emptied less frequently. The school will incur additional electricity costs of $1,700 per year, however. Calculate the combined payback period for the installation of low flush toilets and air hand driers.
1. Determine whether the following statements are true or false.
1. Place the steps, which need to be observed when creating an environment report in their correct order.
• Communicate with the audience to understand their concerns, questions, expectations & interests.
• Create performance Indicators.
• Decide how you are going to publish report.
• Gather the data and evaluate it.
• Identify the data you will need to produce the report.
• Identify key environmental aspects that need to be covered by the report.
• Identify the target audience for your report.
• Make improvements to reporting procedures for future reports.
• Obtain Feedback.
• Produce, publish and distribute the report.
2. Identify 5 benefits of creating and distributing an environmental report.
1. Why is it important to carry out regular evaluations of environmental management systems/ strategies and improvement plans?
1. List 5 reasons that efficiency targets should be/ might need to be regularly reviewed.
1. Identify the characteristics of an effective reward system. Give 4 examples.
What methods can be used to convey information and identify sustainability improvements?
What are the essential features of a non-compliance form that could be used by employees to report any non-compliance issues?
What is the effect of environmental regulations and legislation on business?
What common environmental and energy efficiency issues can you think of?
What benchmarks might be used for environmental & resource sustainability?
List at least 8 examples of techniques or tools that can be used to achieve efficiency.
Define the term “Sustainability” and explain how it relates to resource usage.
What are the steps in creating an Environment Management System (EMS)?
How do sustainable businesses foster ethical behaviours in staff and management?
Summative Assessment 2
Essay Question –write a response to the following quote from Unlimited Sustainable Development Solutions.
Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:
“Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental, and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives”.
Your response should include a discussion of:
• Complex environmental issues.
• Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact.
• Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact.
• Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Youare the supervisor of a group of 15 workers in a business involved in an industry of your choice. You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relation to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.
1. Identify a minimum of 3 appropriate work group activities and provide an overview of what is involved with each activity.
2. Develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvements for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken by your work group.
Geography (Ecosystems) - Ecosystems
A powerpoint containing information on:
Definitions and keywords
The source (the Sun)
Biotic and abiotic
Pyramid of numbers
Living in the environment summary H16
Dit is een samenvatting van het boek 'living in the environment' hoofdstuk 16: energy efficiency and renewable energy.
NR222 Final Exam Health And Wellness Chamberlain College Of Nursing.docx
NR222 Final Exam Health And Wellness Chamberlain College Of N
NR-222: Health & Wellness Final Exam With Answers – A GUARANTEED1. As adults age, they are likely to want to add _____ to their salt salt substitutesANS: BAs adults age, they are likely to want to add more salt to their food. This is to compensate for their diminished sense of taste due to loss of taste buds. Some older adults may choose to use salt substitutes to avoid using excess sodium; however, their use is not widespread.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 282TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity2. The term productive aging refers ction of offspring to continue the life ng a productive job throughout all stages of ability to stay active and healthy throughout all stages of opment of attitudes and skills that support adaptation to the transitions of life.ANS: DProductive aging means development of attitudes and skills that prepare an individual to adapt to the transitions of life and maintain a personal sense of experiencing a productive, meaningful life. It is not necessarily related to having children, job productivity, or levels of activity and health. Productive aging means adapting definitions of success at each stage of the aging process.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 278TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity3. Growth is usually complete by 20s for men and teens for men and teens for women and early 20s for teens for men and early 20s for women.ANS: CGrowth is usually complete by the late teens for women and early 20s for men.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 279TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity4. Protein needs continue to increase until about age 24 years t continues to body mass continues to in metabolism becomes less r protein intake prevents conversion of muscle to body fat.ANS: BProtein needs continue to increase until about age 24 years because lean body mass continues to increase in both men and women. This increase in lean body mass is not necessarily accompanied by an increase in height. Efficiency of protein metabolism is not diminished at this age. Exercise, rather than higher protein intake, prevents conversion of muscle to body fat.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 279TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity5. Calcium and iron intakes may be inadequate in young women c lifestyles and stress reduce the bioavailability of these have high intakes of processed foods, which tend to be poor sources of these e of foods high in these minerals may be restricted because of attempts to lose rements for these minerals are very high and cannot be met without using supplements.ANS: CYoung women may have inadequate intakes of calcium and iron because they may restrict foods that are good sources of these nutrients to try to control their weight. Bioavailability is not affected by stress. Processed foods tend to be poor sources of calcium and iron, but young women do not necessarily have high intakes of processed foods. Requirements for these minerals can be met with a well-planned diet without use of supplements.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 279TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity6. One way a 50-year-old individual can help maintain their lean body mass and minimize increases in body fat is e in regular exercise, including strength stress-reduction strategies, such as massage e that their diet includes adequate amounts of high-quality asing their energy intake to prevent weight gain.ANS: AMiddle-aged adults can help maintain their lean body mass and minimize increases in body fat by exercising regularly and including strength training. Stress reduction may help with other aspects of health, but not with maintaining lean body mass and controlling body fat. Adequate amounts of high-quality protein will not maintain lean body mass without regular exercise. Decreasing energy intake with help prevent increases in body fat, but will not help maintain lean body mass.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 279-280TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity7. Older women require less dietary iron than younger women because older women ased turnover of red blood ased iron losses after cement of hemoglobin with levels of activity, requiring less oxygen to be transported to the cells.ANS: BOlder women require less dietary iron than younger women because they do not lose iron with menstrual blood losses after menopause. Red blood cell turnover does not change with age. Hemoglobin is the oxygen-carrying pigment in blood, myoglobin is the oxygen-carrying pigment in muscles, and one does not replace the other with age. Older women are not necessarily less active than younger women.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 279-280TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity8. A man may be at increased risk for prostate cancer if large portions of red meat several times per eggs for breakfast most s two or more alcoholic beverages s two or more glasses of milk daily.ANS: AProstate cancer is positively associated with intake of dietary fat, especially saturated fat. The most aggressive type of prostate cancer is associated with intake of animal fat. Therefore a man is at increased risk of prostate cancer if he eats large portions of red meat several times per week. Eating eggs for breakfast most mornings, drinking two or more alcoholic beverages daily, and drinking two or more glasses of milk daily are not associated with risk of prostate cancer.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 289TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity9. If an older adult is confused, they may have a deficiency in.ANS: CConfusion is often caused by dehydration in older adults (i.e., deficiency of water). Deficiency of iron may cause anemia and tiredness, deficiency of zinc may cause poor wound healing and changes in taste acuity, and deficiency of protein may cause weakness and loss of lean body mass.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 281TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity10. Factors that lead to decreased fluid intake in older adults ased of ased salt rence for food rather than fluids.ANS: BOlder adults may restrict their fluid intake because of fear of incontinence. Older adults do not usually have lower salt intakes or prefer food rather than fluids. They may sweat less, which makes them more sensitive to heat but does not usually cause them to decrease fluid intake.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 290TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity11. An older adult’s nutritional status may decline if they have arthritis is associated with loss of ability to prepare food may be changes may cause food to be causes an increase in protein and nutrient requirements.ANS: BArthritis causes joint stiffness and pain that may make it difficult for older adults to prepare food. Arthritis does not affect appetite, sense of taste, or protein and nutrient requirements.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 280-281TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity12. A program that may benefit homebound older adults is thea.Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program.b.Congregate Meals Program.c.Home-Delivered Meals Program.d.Emergency Food Assistance Program.ANS: CHomebound older adults may benefit from the Home-Delivered Meals Program. This provides one meal a day that may contribute significantly to nutrient intake. The Food Stamp Program helps people of all ages with low incomes buy nutritious foods. The Congregate Meals Program provides meals for older adults; these meals are served at a community center so it also provides an opportunity for social interaction. The Emergency Food Assistance Program helps provide food for low-income households, including elderly people.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 287TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance13. Older adults require more dietary vitamin D than younger adults down of vitamin D is ption of vitamin D is less skin is less able to synthesize vitamin D. fat levels are higher, and vitamin D is fat soluble.ANS: COlder adults require more dietary vitamin D because their skin is less able to synthesize vitamin D. They do not break down more vitamin D and are still able to absorb vitamin D. Older adults do not necessarily have higher body fat levels.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 282TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity14. Absorption of vitamin B12 may be decreased in older adults because of tinal ction of bile by the ction of intrinsic factor by the esis of vitamin B12 by intestinal bacteria.ANS: COlder adults may produce less intrinsic factor, which may decrease vitamin B12 absorption. Vitamin B12 absorption is not affected by intestinal motility or bile production. Bacterial vitamin production occurs in the large intestine, after most vitamin B12 absorption has occurred, so bacterial production is not very important.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 282TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity15. Sensitivity of taste receptors may be altered if an individual has an inadequate intake in C.in B12.ANS: AInadequate zinc intake decreases sensitivity of taste receptors. Inadequate intakes of iron and vitamin B12 are associated with anemia. Inadequate intakes of vitamin C cause poor wound healing.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 282TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity16. In older adults, weakening of muscles along the gastrointestinal tract may ing and gas.ANS: BWeakening of muscles along the gastrointestinal tract may cause constipation in older adults because the muscles do not push food along as powerfully. Diarrhea would be more likely to occur if the muscles became stronger. Bloating and gas may accompany constipation, but this is a secondary rather than a primary effect. Colon cancer is not associated with weakening of intestinal muscles.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 282TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity17. An example of someone who is at high risk for malnutrition and weight loss is a(n)a.21-year-old student who works part time.b.36-year-old single mother with three children.c.57-year-old man who is unemployed.d.88-year-old widow who lives alone.ANS: DElderly adults, especially those who live alone, are at high risk for malnutrition and weight loss because of low income, physical difficulties with shopping and preparing food, and lack of social interaction at meal times. Students, single mothers, and unemployed men could have some risk factors for malnutrition if they are busy, depressed, or lacking income, but malnutrition is less common in these groups than among older adults.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 282-284TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity18. A reason that dehydration may be a problem in older adults is adults sweat more in hot lungs evaporate more water during ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine absorption from the gastrointestinal tract decreases.ANS: CDehydration may be a problem in older adults because the kidneys’ ability to concentrate urine decreases with age. Older adults actually sweat less in hot weather than younger adults. Their lungs do not evaporate more water during respiration and water absorption from the gastrointestinal tract does not decrease (if it did, older adults would experience diarrhea).PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 282-284TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity19. The Nutrition Screening Initiative is intended to ify adults older than 65 who are at nutritional ify individuals of all ages who are at nutritional mine the level of nutritional risk in older adults in the ment strategies to prevent nutritional risk in adults more than 65 years old.ANS: AThe Nutrition Screening Initiative provides a screening tool to help identify adults older than 65 who are at nutritional risk. It is used by individual health practitioners and does not provide national data on levels of nutritional risk. It is used to identify individuals who would benefit from nutrition interventions to prevent overt malnutrition, rather than preventing nutritional risk.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 285TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance20. In adults over age 80, the greatest dietary concern nting weight asing lean body aining adequate nutritional nting coronary heart disease and cancer.ANS: CThe greatest dietary concern for adults over age 80 is maintaining adequate nutritional status to promote optimal health and quality of life. At this age, weight gain is rarely a problem. It is possible, but unlikely for them to increase their lean body mass. Preventing coronary heart disease and cancer is less of a concern at this age; in fact, too much concern about healthy eating can result in inadequate dietary intakes.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 282-284TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, EvaluationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance21. The Child and Adult Care Food Program helps provide food l-age children and institutionalized older ren and adults with physical and mental disabilities while they attend daycare -income families caring for preschool-age children and dependent elderly family ren up to age 12, senior citizens, and certain handicapped people who participate in daycare programs.ANS: DThe Child and Adult Care Food Program provides meals and snacks for children up to age 12 and to senior citizens and specific categories of handicapped people participating in daycare programs that are nonprofit, licensed, or receive agency approval.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 287TOP: Nursing Process: PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance22. An appropriate way to maintain a healthy body weight g only at set ing to respond to actual hunger ing calories to restrict energy ing foods that are high in fat and added sugar.ANS: BAn important strategy for maintaining a healthy body weight is learning to respond to actual hunger cues, eating when hungry, and stopping when full. It is not necessary to restrict meals to set times. Counting calories may be successful, but is not a realistic long-term strategy. Limiting foods that are high in fat and added sugar may help decrease kcal intake, but it is not necessary to avoid them altogether.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 285TOP: Nursing Process: PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance23. The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) ency food supplies for people living below the poverty level.b.a list of foods that meet specific nutrient and health ns toward the purchase of foods for people with low tion supplements for at risk individuals and families.ANS: CSNAP provides coupons that people with low incomes can use to buy food. The Emergency Food Assistance Program provides extra food supplies for people living below the poverty level. None of the food programs provides a list of foods that meet specific nutrient and health requirements or provide nutrition supplements.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 287TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance24. The Emergency Food Assistance Program supplements the dietary intake of low-income households by distributing basic commodities ding education on preparation of low-cost ing government-held surplus dairy ibuting excess commodities to developing ding specific nutrient-dense foods for young children and older adults.ANS: BTEFAP supplements the dietary intake of low-income families at the same time as reducing surplus dairy commodities. The program does not include an education component. It is a domestic program and does not provide food to other nations. It is available to people of all ages, not just to young children and older adults.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 287TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance25. The Senior Nutrition Program provides meals for ___ age 60 years or led -income lly isolated adultsANS: AThe Senior Nutrition Program provides inexpensive meals, education, and socialization for all adults age 60 and over. It does not specifically target disabled, low-income, or socially isolated adults.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 287TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance26. Chewing and swallowing difficulties in older adults increase the risk l oesophageal reflux.ANS: CChewing and swallowing difficulties in older adults increase the risk of food asphyxiation. Vomiting is caused by infection or foodborne illness. Gastroesophageal reflux is caused by a weakening of the sphincter between the esophagus and the stomach. Hiatal hernia is caused by part of the stomach pushing up through the diaphragm; this is often related to gastroesophageal reflux.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 287-288TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity27. If someone is under continued stress and starts to experience severe stomach pain, they may asphyxiation.c.a peptic of intrinsic factor.ANS: CLong-term stress can stimulate excessive stomach acid secretion and contribute to peptic ulcer formation. Dysphagia means difficulty swallowing, associated with food asphyxiation, but not usually caused by stress. Stress does not affect production of intrinsic factor.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 288TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity28. After menopause, women have an increased risk 2 hial deficiency anemia.ANS: AAfter menopause, decreased estrogen levels cause loss of bone density, which leads to osteoporosis. Risk of type 2 diabetes increases with age, especially if weight increases, but is not specifically related to menopause. Asthma is not related to menopause. Iron deficiency anemia decreases after menopause because blood is no longer lost in menstruation.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 288TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity29. Alcohol abuse is associated with poor nutritional status ol intake increases basal metabolic olic beverages displace healthful foods from the ol increases the desire for foods high in fat and olics often eat in bars that serve a limited number of foods.ANS: BAlcohol provides kcals but no nutrients and depresses appetite, which reduces intake of healthful foods. Alcohol affects nutrient absorption, metabolism, and excretion, but not basal metabolic rate. It does not increase the desire for foods high in fat and sugar. Many alcoholics drink at home and so are not limited to foods served in bars.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 289-290TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity30. An example of rationalizing icting food intake by rationing g with stress using biofeedback ifying emotional triggers for a busy schedule to justify poor food choices.ANS: DRationalizing applies reasonable explanations to behaviors; for, example using a busy schedule to justify poor food choices. Rationing food is an example of restrained eating. Coping with stress using biofeedback techniques and identifying emotional triggers for eating are useful behavioral techniques that can help promote health.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 291-293TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity1. An individual has a distorted body image or her body has abnormal or her perception of his or her body differs from or she is dissatisfied with his or her personal or she focuses on changing a specific body part.ANS: BA distorted body image means that an individual’s perception of his or her body differs from reality. The distortion is the difference between perception and reality rather than an actual distortion in body proportions. Distorted body image is often associated with dissatisfaction with personal appearance, but an individual may have an accurate body image and still be dissatisfied.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 203-204TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity2. Cultural influences have had a greater influence on body perception during the past few decades because of the increase al h knowledge.ANS: AMass media present “desirable” body images that affect how people view their own bodies. Food availability and medical services do not affect body perception. Health knowledge may affect how we view our bodies, but to a lesser degree than mass media.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 203-205TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance | Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity3. A healthy and positive body image is associated ion of a range of healthy lifestyle vement of a healthy weight and body om from prejudice against overweight and underweight stic evaluation and acceptance of our positive and negative attributes.ANS: DIndividuals with a healthy and positive body image evaluate themselves realistically and accept their positive and negative attributes. They may or may not adopt healthy lifestyle behaviors, achieve a healthy weight and body composition. They will probably tend to be less prejudiced against overweight and underweight individuals, but this is not necessarily so.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 203-204TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, Planning, EvaluationMSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity4. Body mass index (BMI) ratio of waist circumference to hip t in kilograms divided by the square of height in indicator of personal satisfaction with current body t in kilograms divided by waist circumference in centimeters.ANS: BBody mass index = weight (kg) ÷ height (m)2. The ratio of waist circumference to hip circumference is known as waist-to-hip ratio. Body mass index indicates degree of overweight or underweight but not personal satisfaction with current body weight. Weight divided by waist circumference is not used in clinical practice.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 205-206TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity5. Risk of mortality in adults is lowest for those with a body mass index that is betweena.15 and 20.b.20 and 25.c.25 and 30.d.30 and 40.ANS: BLowest risk of mortality is associated with a BMI between 20 and 25. Risk of mortality increases slightly with lower BMIs and increases exponentially with higher BMIs.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 206TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance6. The increased risk of mortality in individuals with a very low body mass index is probably related levels of body quate fat levels of lean body re to store energy from ingested food.ANS: CRisk of mortality in individuals with a very low BMI is probably related to low levels of lean body mass, often related to smoking or disease. Low levels of body fat and inadequate fat intake are less likely to be associated with increased risk of mortality. Failure to store energy from ingested food is rare.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 205-206TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance7. Fat stored in the abdominal area is called _____ taneousANS: BFat stored in the abdominal area is called visceral fat. Gynoid fat is stored around the hips, buttocks, and thighs. Essential fat protects vital organs in the body. Subcutaneous fat is all storage fat, regardless of the site of storage.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 205 | pp. 210-211TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity8. Metabolic syndrome is associated with increased risk tes id tive mia and lymphoma.ANS: AMetabolic syndrome increases risk of atherosclerosis, heart disease, stroke, and diabetes mellitus. Even though the thyroid gland regulates body metabolism, it is not associated with metabolic syndrome. Digestive disorders, leukemia, and lymphoma are also not related to metabolic syndrome.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 207TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance9. Obesity may be a contributing factor in development ple sclerosis.ANS: CObesity increases risk of sleep apnea. Risk of osteoporosis is actually inversely related to obesity. Alcoholism is not related to obesity. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease and is not related to obesity.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 207TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance10. Adverse effects of obesity that are not life threatening but decrease quality of life tes blood pressure.ANS: AObesity increases risk of all of these disorders. Arthritis is not life threatening, but decreases quality of life. Heart disease, diabetes mellitus, and high blood pressure all increase risk of mortality.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 209TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance11. Restrained eating is defined ing certain types of ing food intake to certain times of ng to eat when hunger has been ing food intake to less than natural appetite.ANS: DRestrained eating means restricting food intake below one’s natural appetite. Avoiding certain types of foods is picky eating. Restrained eaters may or may not limit food intake to certain times of day. Ceasing to eat when hunger has been satisfied would be considered normal eating.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 209TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity12. If an individual says they have a desire for dessert after they have eaten a meal they are describing ite.ANS: DDesire for food is appetite. Physiological need for food is experienced as hunger. Satiety describes a lack of desire for more food, often accompanied by a feeling of fullness. Thirst describes a desire for fluid.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 209TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity13. For a man, a total body fat level of 18% is .ANS: BThe recommended range for total body fat in men is 15% to 20%. Therefore, 18% is considered a healthy amount of total body fat.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 210TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance14. If a health practitioner wants to assess whether an underweight woman is too thin, he or she may ask she has lost weight other family members are er she has a normal er she menstruates regularly.ANS: DFailure to menstruate indicates that body fat levels are too low. Recent weight loss, appetite, and family weight status may help understand why the woman is thin, but would not indicate whether her weight is below a healthy range.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 210TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance15. If a woman’s waist measurement is 34 inches and her hip measurement is 40 inches, her waist-to-hip ratio would be considered to iated with a high risk of chronic ated to risk of chronic iated with a low risk of chronic iated with a high risk of acute disease.ANS: AThis woman’s waist-to-hip ratio is 34 ÷ 40 = 0.85. A healthy waist-to-hip ratio for women is less than 0.8. Therefore, this woman’s waist-to-hip ratio is considered to be associated with a high risk of chronic disease.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 211TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, EvaluationMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance16. Compared to women, it appears to be easier for men to lose weight have more willpower than tend to be more active than ral fat is lost more easily than lower body body fat is lost more easily than visceral fat.ANS: CMen generally have more visceral fat, which is easier to lose than lower body fat (which is more common in women). Willpower and levels of activity are not different in men versus women.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 211TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance17. Excess fat is stored in our bodies acids in the gen in the rol in cell ycerides in adipocytes.ANS: DExcess body fat is stored as triglycerides in special cells called adipocytes. The liver cannot store fatty acids. Glycerol is not stored in the body. Excess fat cannot be converted to glycogen.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 211TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity18. The increase in the number of adipocytes in the body during growth spurts is known trophy.ANS: CThe increase in number of adipocytes is known as hyperplasia. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in cell size. Mutation describes changes that occur in cells, for example in cancer or genetic defects. Maturation describes a time-related process.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 211TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity19. The best way to accurately measure body fat levels is to mass index (BMI).ps skinfold water weighing (densitometry).ectric impedance analysis (BIA).ANS: CUnderwater weighing is considered the “gold standard” for measuring body fat levels. However, body mass index, triceps skinfold thickness, and bioelectric impedance analysis are often used to estimate body fat levels because they are easier to measure.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 212-213TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, EvaluationMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance20. To lose a pound of body fat in a week, daily energy expenditure would have to increase by about _____ kcals.a.350b.500c.700d.3500ANS: BOne pound of fat represents 3,500 kcals. To lose a pound of fat in a week, daily energy expenditure would need to increase by 3,500 ÷ 7 = 500 kcals.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 213TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance21. The causes of obesity are onmental.ANS: CMay factors contribute to obesity, including genetic, cultural, hormonal, and environmental factors. The cause of obesity is therefore multifactorial.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 214-215TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity22. According to set point theory, if weight or fatness falls below the level perceived to be appropriate by the body, the individual ience a greater desire for high-fat op a new, lower set point for body ience an overall increase in hunger ase his or her physical activity level until weight is regained.ANS: CSet point theory suggests that our bodies defend a set level of body fatness. Therefore if weight or fatness falls below this level, the individual is likely to experience increased hunger until they regain the weight. Unfortunately, it is not easy to develop a new, lower set point for body weight. Appetite for high-fat foods does not necessarily increase. Physical activity level is not affected by body weight in relation to set point.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 216-217TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity23. Factors that appear to help reduce the body’s set point for body weight and body fatness ar aerobic ased protein of weight loss of specific vitamin supplements.ANS: AIt is very difficult to reduce the body’s set point for body weight and body fatness; regular aerobic exercise seems to be the most effective intervention. Protein intake, weight loss medications, and vitamin supplements do not affect set point.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 216-217TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance24. A major problem associated with cycles of weight loss and weight gain ased ability to metabolize body of sensitivity to physiologic hunger cues.c.a false sense of empowerment and control of body nal imbalances triggered by changes in body fat levels.ANS: BCycles of weight loss and regain result in loss of sensitivity to physiologic hunger cues. The body’s ability to metabolize body fat is unaffected. Usually individuals who lose and regain weight feel loss of control rather than empowerment. Weight cycling does not generally affect hormone balance.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 219TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, EvaluationMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity25. To maintain a healthy weight, the most important goals are related to changes cal ement use.ANS: AMaintaining a healthy weight depends on adopting healthy behaviors and attitudes towards food rather than focusing on food intake or physical activity alone. Supplement use does not influence body weight.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 219TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance26. The most important factor in setting behavioral goals client’s willingness to idual habits and amount of weight loss skill of the health practitioner.ANS: BBehavioral goals must be tailored to each client’s habits and preferences. Their willingness to exercise is only one of many factors to consider. The amount of weight loss desired is not the focus of behavioral change. The skill of the health practitioner may help or hinder the process of determining behavioral goals, but is not the focus of the process.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 219TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance27. If a client wants to relearn to pay attention to hunger and satiety cues, they may find it helpful a journal of perceived lish a regular pattern of all their food at eating until they are very hungry.ANS: AA journal of perceived emotions (especially if it also includes foods eaten) may help a client to relearn how to pay attention to hunger and satiety cues. Establishing a regular pattern of meals may help a client develop healthful eating habits, but would not help them identify their hunger and satiety. Eating all food at home is probably not realistic for most clients. Avoiding eating until very hungry is likely to result in erratic food intake and overeating.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 221TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance28. The best way to maintain lean body mass is weight ise ase dietary fat e adequate protein intake.ANS: BExercise helps maintain lean body mass (muscle). Weight loss causes some loss of lean body mass and ensuring adequate protein intake will help maintain lean body mass, but these effects are less significant than that of exercise. Decreasing dietary fat intake does not affect lean body mass.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 222TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity29. National programs that aim to reverse the trend of increasing body weight should focus ng enance of ideal body oring annual weight vement of a healthier body weight.ANS: DAchievement of healthier body weight is a more realistic goal than maintenance of ideal body weight; it is more likely to encourage success. Monitoring annual weight changes allows researchers to describe trends, but not to reverse them. Smoking cessation improves health, but is more likely to be associated with weight gain than with weight loss.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 223TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance30. Our main attitude towards food should be one hy choices.ANS: CWe should be able to enjoy and take pleasure in eating foods. At times we may need to exercise self-control when we are not hungry. Eating contributes greatly to our quality of life and should be more than a necessity in our lives. We can make healthy food choices but this should not become a joy-killing focus of our lives.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 224TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Psychosocial integrity1. Increased levels of progesterone in pregnancy cause relaxation of smooth muscle, which can ipation.ANS: DProgesterone causes relaxation of smooth muscle, which slows intestinal transit and may cause constipation. The cause of nausea in pregnancy is uncertain. Headache and diarrhea do not usually occur with pregnancy.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 229TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity2. If a woman has had preeclampsia and hypertension in a previous pregnancy, during this pregnancy she ict her sodium nue her regular sodium ict her protein iron and calcium supplements.ANS: BIt is dangerous to restrict sodium intake during pregnancy; sodium restriction can reduce plasma volume and cardiac output. Therefore, a woman with preeclampsia and hypertension should continue her regular sodium intake. She should follow a well-balanced diet including plenty of protein to replace urinary losses and with adequate vitamins and minerals. She should not restrict protein intake, and iron and calcium supplements are not generally recommended.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 229TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity3. An increase in oxygen needs during pregnancy results in metabolic rate (BMR).ANS: DIncreased oxygen needs during pregnancy result in increased BMR. Stamina may actually decrease because the fetus places extra demands on the body. Increases in blood pressure may sometimes occur but are not caused by increased oxygen needs. Bowel motility generally decreases during pregnancy because of high progesterone levels.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 229TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity4. The increase in plasma volume during pregnancy may appear to plasma levels of r plasma levels of blood levels of r blood levels of hemoglobin.ANS: CIncreased plasma volume causes hemodilution so that blood levels of hemoglobin are lower. The body maintains constant plasma sodium levels.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 229TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity5. Intrauterine growth retardation may be caused weight gain during tional diabetes during sive weight gain during sive use of vitamin and mineral supplements.ANS: AIntrauterine growth retardation is associated with poor weight gain during pregnancy. Gestational diabetes and excessive weight gain during pregnancy are more likely to result in a large infant. Excessive use of vitamin and mineral supplements may be dangerous but is not associated with intrauterine growth retardation.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 229-230TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity6. For a woman with a healthy weight before pregnancy, gaining 25 to 35 pounds during pregnancy is considered to low for a healthy high for a healthy current recommended range for weight current range for weight gain for a woman experiencing gestational diabetes.ANS: CThe recommended range for weight gain for a woman with a healthy weight before pregnancy is 25 to 35 pounds. Weight gain recommendations for women with gestational diabetes are the same as those for women without this condition and are based on prepregnant weight.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 229-230TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance7. A weight gain of 15 to 25 pounds during pregnancy is recommended fora.a teenage overweight underweight women regardless of weight.ANS: BA weight gain between 15 and 25 pounds during pregnancy is recommended for a woman who is overweight prior to pregnancy (BMI 25.0-29.9). Pregnant teens and underweight women should gain 28 to 40 lbs. Recommended ranges for weight gain are based on prepregnant weight and individual variables.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 230TOP: Nursing Process: PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance8. Weight gain during pregnancy is a variable that is highly correlated um t birth weight.ANS: DWeight gain during pregnancy is highly correlated with infant birth weight. Zinc status, bone density, and calcium status of the infant are usually maintained at the expense of the mother’s stores.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 229-230TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity9. A woman needs to increase her kcal intake by about 300 kcals daily three trimesters of first and second trimesters of second and third trimesters of 6 months before conception through the first trimester.ANS: CEnergy needs increase by about 300 kcals/day during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. Before pregnancy and during the first trimester, energy needs are not increased.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 229-230TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity | Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance10. A woman who is 4 months pregnant and has already gained 25 pounds a low-calorie diet to help her lose the extra y her food intake if it is excessive but not attempt to lose a multivitamin/mineral supplement and consume 1200 kcal a hard not to gain any more weight during the remainder of the pregnancy.ANS: BA weight gain of 25 pounds in the first 4 months of pregnancy is high. However, pregnancy is not a time to restrict energy and food intake and attempt to lose weight. The mother should focus on following a well-balanced eating plan, modifying her food intake if it is excessive. 1200 kcals/day would be insufficient to support a healthy pregnancy; taking a multivitamin/mineral supplement cannot compensate for inadequate food intake.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 229-230TOP: Nursing Process: PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance11. To prevent neural tube defects, the U.S. Public Health Service and the American Academy of Pediatrics now recommend adequate intake in by women of childbearing in by women in the first trimester of acid by women of childbearing acid by women in the first trimester of pregnancy.ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: KnowledgeREF: p. 234 TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity12. Vouchers for food are benefits of thea.La Leche League.b.United States Department of Agriculture Assistance Program.c.Special Supplemental Program for Women, Infants, and Children.d.U.S. Public Health Service and the American Academy of Pediatrics.ANS: CThe Special Supplemental Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC), overseen by the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), provides vouchers for nutrient dense foods to low-income women with infants and young children. The La Leche League provides support to breastfeeding mothers. The U.S. Public Health Service and the American Academy of Pediatrics work together to recommend adequate intakes of folic acid for women of childbearing age to help prevent neural tube defects. The USDA does not have an “Assistance Program.”PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 234TOP: Nursing Process: PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance13. The amount of iron needed during pregnancy cult to achieve without taking a to achieve with a well-balanced same as the amount needed by nonpregnant than for nonpregnant women because there are no menstrual losses.ANS: APregnant women need almost twice as much iron as nonpregnant women because of the expansion in maternal red cell volume and to supply the needs of the developing fetus. This amount is hard to achieve without use of a supplement; it cannot easily be achieved simply with a well-balanced diet.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 234TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity14. Dietary calcium needs of pregnant women r than for nonpregnant women to form the fetal r than for nonpregnant women because intestinal absorption same as for nonpregnant women because intestinal absorption than for nonpregnant women because calcium metabolism is more efficient.ANS: CPregnant women need the same amount of dietary calcium as nonpregnant women because increased intestinal absorption compensates for the increased needs to form the fetal skeleton.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 235TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity15. Teratogens ives that may adversely affect the course of a ances known to cause malformations in the unborn nes known to cause malformations in the unborn nogens that may increase the risk of cancer in the fetus.ANS: BA teratogen is an agent that is capable of producing a malformation or a defect in the unborn fetus. They may include additives or hormones. Teratogens are not necessarily carcinogenic.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 235TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance16. To prevent fetal alcohol syndrome, alcohol should ed throughout ed in the first trimester of ed throughout ed in the first trimester of pregnancy.ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: ComprehensionREF: pp. 235-236 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance17. A drug that appears to be safe when used in moderate amounts during pregnancy ine.ANS: DCaffeine is safe when used in moderate amounts during pregnancy. Alcohol causes fetal alcohol syndrome and there is no safe level of consumption. Nicotine (from cigarettes) increases risk for several adverse outcomes including prematurity, low birth weight, SGA, stillbirth, placenta previa (location in lower uterine area), abruptio placentae (separation from uterine wall), and, postnatally, sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Isotretinoin is an acne medication that causes fetal malformations.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 235TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance18. Pregnant women who smoke have a high risk of giving birth to an infant birth ge birth weight.ANS: CSmoking during pregnancy increases the risk of having an infant with low birth weight. Infants of mothers with gestational diabetes may have macrosomia and be larger than normal.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 236TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance19. During pregnancy, women exercise at ise for 15 minutes very strenuous cool showers after exercise sessions.ANS: CDuring pregnancy, women should avoid very strenuous exercise. They may exercise moderately, especially if they were active before becoming pregnant. They do not need to exercise for any specific amount of time each day or take cool showers after exercise.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 236-237TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance20. If a woman in her last trimester of pregnancy has marked edema, she may m overload.ANS: CAfter 20 weeks of gestation, marked edema, hypertension, and proteinuria are symptoms of preeclampsia. In nonpregnant individuals, edema may be a sign of heart failure or sodium overload. Dehydration does not cause edema.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 237-238TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity21. Recommendations for treatment of gestational diabetes t ry ance of diabetes medication.ANS: BGestational diabetes is generally treated using dietary control and moderate exercise. These measures help regulate weight gain; weight loss is not recommended during pregnancy. Dietary control may include limiting sugar intake, but it is not necessary to avoid it completely. If gestational diabetes cannot be controlled using diet and exercise, insulin may be used, but oral diabetes mediations are not used during pregnancy.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 238-239TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity22. High bioavailability of nutrients and resistance to infection to decrease risk of of the advantages of of the disadvantages of tages that formula preparations are able to mimic.ANS: BHigh nutrient bioavailability and resistance to infection are two advantages of breastfeeding. Formula cannot fully mimic these advantages. Breastfeeding does reduce risk of allergies, but not due to these factors.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 240TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance23. Prolactin is the hormone responsible for milk responsible for milk res the body for responsible for relaxing muscle tone during pregnancy.ANS: BProlactin primarily stimulates milk synthesis. Oxytocin is responsible for milk let-down. Progesterone and estrogen prepare the body for pregnancy. Progesterone relaxes muscle tone during pregnancy.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 240-241TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity24. Nursing by the infant results ined milk ased body fat in the ased body fat in the ased digestibility of breast milk.ANS: ANursing by the infant stimulates prolactin secretion which promotes milk production. Nursing does lead to weight gain in the infant, but not specifically body fat. It is likely to decrease, rather than increase, maternal body fat. Breast milk is easily digested but its digestibility is not affected by the infant nursing.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 240-241TOP: Nursing Process: Planning, ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance25. Excess protein in an infant’s diet is a problem causes increases renal solute results in excessive caloric gastrointestinal (GI) tract is too immature to absorb it.ANS: BExcess protein is a problem because the immature infant kidney may be unable to handle the high renal solute load. Low protein intake, but not high protein intake, may cause edema. Excess protein intake does not necessarily result in excessive calorie intake if it takes the place of carbohydrate and fat. The infant’s gastrointestinal tract seems to be able to absorb excess protein.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 243TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity26. Infants may need supplements , fluoride, and vitamin D.um, magnesium, and vitamin D., zinc, and vitamin E.um, fluoride, and vitamin E.ANS: AInfants may need supplements of iron, fluoride, and vitamin D. Breast milk and infant formula are good sources of calcium, magnesium, zinc, and vitamin E.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 243-244TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance27. Vitamin K is the _____-soluble vitamin routinely given to _____.; new ; new ; ; newbornsANS: DVitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin routinely given to newborns, usually by injection, to prevent hemorrhaging. It is not water soluble and is not given to new mothers.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 244TOP: Nursing Process: AssessmentMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance28. Infants less than one year old should not be ’s juice.ANS: CCow’s milk is not suitable for infants less than one year old because it contains high levels of sodium and protein and the high renal solute load may cause dehydration. Fruit juice may be introduced after age 6 months. Crackers and egg yolk may be introduced after age 9 months.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 245TOP: Nursing Process: ImplementationMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance29. To prevent baby bottle tooth decay, infants should not be allowed to sleep with a bottle ages sweetened with liquid other than -fortified infant formula.ANS: CBaby bottle tooth decay is caused when infants go to sleep with bottles containing any liquids that contain sugar or other nutrients, including formula, breast milk, fruit juice, or other sweetened beverages. If they are put to bed with a bottle, it should contain only water.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: pp. 246-247TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Health promotion and maintenance30. Tube feeding is often required by babies born before 34 weeks of gestation are unable to taste buds are lack a coordinated suck-swallow cannot digest breast milk or infant formula.ANS: CBabies born before 34 weeks of gestation often require tube feedings because their suck-swallow reflex is uncoordinated. No infants are able to chew when they are born. Maturity of taste buds does not influence feeding method. Many premature infants are able to digest breast milk or infant formula; if they cannot, they may need parenteral feedings.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 248TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity1. The adverse effects of malnutrition on the gastrointestinal tract result ased absorption of fluids and electrolytes from ased bacterial activity inside the gastrointestinal ased transit time for food passing through the GI ased risk of spread of bacteria from the GI tract into the rest of the body.ANS: DMalnutrition can lead to a decrease in integrity of the gastrointestinal tract that allows bacteria to spread from inside the intestines to the rest of the body. Usually, the intestines are still able to absorb fluids and electrolytes and transit time does not decrease. Bacterial activity inside the gastrointestinal tract does not necessarily increase or decrease.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 326-327TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity2. The adverse effects of malnutrition on the skin may result sive wound ased hair ning and soreness.ANS: BMalnutrition decreases skin density and slows wound healing. Fevers and infection may cause excessive sweating, reddening and soreness, but these symptoms would not be caused by malnutrition. Malnutrition tends to decrease hair growth or cause hair to become brittle and easily pluckable.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 326-327TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity3. One of the most stressful physical traumas isa.a fracture in a long bone.b.a low-grade fever (<100° F). surgery requiring a general anesthetic.d.a burn that covers >40% of body surface area.ANS: DBurns that cover >40% of body surface area increase metabolic rate more than fractures, low-grade fevers, and minor surgery. Long bone fractures increase metabolic rate 10% to 30%, fever increases metabolic rate 2% for every degree above normal, surgery increases metabolic rate up to 20%, and burns increase metabolic rate 85% to 105%.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 331TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity4. Glycogen stores are usually depleted after an individual fasts for _____ hours.a.2 to 4b.4 to 8c.8 to 12d.12 to 18ANS: CLiver glycogen stores can maintain blood glucose level for 8 to 12 hours of fasting.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 328TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity5. During the first few days of starvation, the brain obtains glucose that is produced gen via acids via acids via hed-chain amino acids via deamination.ANS: CDuring starvation, after glycogen stores are depleted (after 8 to 12 hours), the body uses protein from muscle to produce glucose via gluconeogenesis. Glycolysis is part of the process used to obtain energy from glucose. Lipogenesis is the process by which the body forms fat from excess fatty acids and glycerol. Deamination is the first part of the process of using amino acids to form glucose via gluconeogenesis; all amino acids can be used to form glucose, not just branched chain amino acids.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 328TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity6. After several days of starvation, the body tissues obtain more of their energy e bodies.ANS: DAs starvation continues, body tissues obtain more of their energy from ketone bodies. Ketone becomes the main source of body energy; glucose and glycogen stores are depleted. Amino acids from muscle stores are still catabolized to provide energy for the brain and red corpuscles, but this represents a small portion of total energy needs.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: pp. 328-329TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity7. During starvation, the body conserves energy asing metabolic ring to create ing for shorter periods of ing to reduce body temperature.ANS: AThe body conserves energy during starvation by decreasing metabolic rate. Shivering and sweat production both require energy and increase metabolic rate. Energy use is at its lowest during sleep, so sleeping less would increase energy needs.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 329TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity8. A major difference between starvation and stress is that metabolic rate _____ during starvation and _____ during ases; ases; unaffected; ases; is unaffectedANS: BMetabolic rate decreases during starvation because the body is trying to conserve energy. It increases during stress because the body uses energy to heal the injury.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 329-331TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity9. Major hallmarks of the ebb phase of stress hermia and a, vomiting, and ased catabolism of thermia and increased nitrogen excretion.ANS: AHypothermia, lethargy, and decreased oxygen consumption are characteristics of the ebb phase of stress. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are not caused by any phase of stress. Increased catabolism of macronutrients, hyperthermia, and increased nitrogen excretion occur in the flow phase of stress.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: pp. 329-330TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity10. Seventy-two hours after a major accident involving multiple broken bones, the patient would be expected to be in the _____ ANS: DAfter major stress, such as an accident causing multiple broken bones, patients are in the ebb phase (commonly known as shock) for 36 to 48 hours. By 72 hours after the injury, they would be in the flow phase and would be highly hypermetabolic.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 329TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity11. Patients with poor nutritional status before surgery are at high risk for pneumonia or wound infections after surgery are likely to lose more blood and body fluids during are likely to already have pneumonia or infections before have an increased prevalence of nausea and vomiting after nutrient stores may be inadequate to meet increased needs during recovery.ANS: DPatients who are malnourished are more likely to develop infections or pneumonia after surgery because their nutrient stores may be inadequate to meet increased needs for recovery and healing. Their bodies need extra protein, energy, vitamins, and minerals to form new tissues. Malnourished patients do not necessarily lose more blood and body fluids during surgery and are not more likely to have nausea and vomiting after surgery. If they have pneumonia or infections before surgery, it is likely that surgery would be delayed unless absolutely necessary.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 331TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment, PlanningMSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity12. During severe stress, such as major burns over large areas of the body, protein needs may increase to as high as _____ g/kg body weight.a.1.2b.1.5c.2.0d.2.5ANS: CDuring severe stress, protein requirements can increase to as high as 2.0 g/kg body weight. During moderate stress, protein requirements may be as high as 1.5 g/kg body weight.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 331TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity13. As patients age, their body composition changes, and their fluid needs during not with the type of metabolic stress.ANS: BFluid needs per kilogram body weight during recovery decrease with age. This is because lean body mass decreases with age and is not affected by the type of metabolic stress.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 331TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity14. The amino acid that plays an important role in the gastrointestinal tract during stress lalanine.ANS: BDuring stress, glutamine is mobilized in large quantities from skeletal muscle and lung to be used directly as a fuel source by intestinal cells. Glutamine also plays a significant role in maintaining intestinal immune function and enhancing wound repair by supporting lymphocyte and macrophage proliferation, hepatic gluconeogenesis, and fibroblast function. Arginine has a role in maintaining immune function in the gastrointestinal tract but is not as critical in stress as glutamine. Methionine and phenylalanine do not have specific roles during stress.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 331 | p. 333TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity15. During stress, giving patients extra insulin does not always decrease their high blood glucose levels ratio of glucagon to insulin is extra insulin stimulates glucose number of insulin receptors on cells blood glucose levels help protect the body against infection.ANS: AGiving patients extra insulin does not always decrease high blood glucose levels in stressed patients because the ratio of glucagon to insulin is increased. Insulin stimulates uptake of glucose by cells; it does not stimulate glucose production. Stress does not change the number of insulin receptors on cells. High blood glucose levels tend to increase risk of infection rather than protecting the body against infection.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 331TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity16. During stress and recovery, it is especially important that patients achieve adequate intakes , folate, and vitamin Bin C, vitamin A, and sium, thiamine, and in K, vitamin D, and calcium.ANS: BAdequate intakes of vitamin C, vitamin A, and zinc are especially important during stress and recovery. Needs for most micronutrients increase, but these three are especially important. Vitamin C is needed for collagen formation for wound healing. Vitamin A and beta-carotene are important for healing of epithelia and as antioxidants. Zinc increases the tensile strength of healing wounds.PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 334TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Physiological integrity17. The best way to determine energy needs of stressed patients is to ect Ireton-Jones Dietary Reference Int hunger and appetite cues.ANS: AEnergy needs of stressed patients are highly individual; the most accurate way to measure them is using indirect calorimetry. Formulas such as Ireton-Jones are used when indirect calorimetry is not available, but their results are less accurate. The Dietary Reference Intakes provide estimates of energy needs for health
GENV 205 WEEK 2 QUIZ
1) Which of the following are biotic?
II. Energy flow
I and III
I, II, and III
2) Which of the following best describes an ecosystem?
All biotic factors interacting
All biotic and abiotic factors
3) Of the following, which are products of photosynthesis?
II. Carbon dioxide
I and II
I and III
4) Which group of organisms performs photosynthesis?
5) Which of the following shows the complex interactions between species within an ecosystem?
Trophic level diagram
6) What are the physical products of cellular respiration?
Oxygen and carbon dioxide
Nitrogen and carbon
Glucose and oxygen
Water and carbon dioxide
Glucose and water
7) Which of the following is the approximate efficiency of the energy transfer as energy flows through the food chain?
8) How is the majority of energy within an ecosystem lost?
Energy used to grow biomass
Energy used to capture prey
9) What law best relates to energy loss within an ecosystem?
First law of thermodynamics
Second law of thermodynamics
Third law of thermodynamics
Law of conservation of matter
Law of relativity
10) Humans have a considerable effect on the hydrologic cycle. Which of the following has a direct effect on this cycle?
III. Mining of fossil fuels
I and II
I, II, and III
11) Which of the following is considered to be the most important element in living organisms?
12) Which element is the primary component of fossil fuels?
13) What relatively recent development is greatly impacting the carbon cycle?
Formation of fossil fuels
Combustion of fossil fuels
Formation of carbonate rocks
14) What is a possible result of an increased amount of CO2 in the atmosphere?
Increase in global temperature
Decrease in cellular respiration
Increase in formation of fossil fuels
15) What group of organisms is primarily responsible for the processes that occur in the nitrogen cycle?
16) When nutrients are transported through soil with water, this process is known as
17) A scientist is observing a series of plants and measuring their growth with the addition of nutrients. She notices that the addition of nitrate has no effect on the growth while the addition of phosphorus shows significant growth. What conclusion can she draw about the nutrients in relation to this plant?
hosphorus is a limiting nutrient.
Nitrogen is a limiting nutrient.
The plant does not require nitrogen.
The plant does not require phosphorus.
The plant had an excess of nutrients, limiting its growth.
18) What is the major source of phosphorus on land?
Deposition from atmospheric phosphorus
Compounds that are formed by autotrophs during photosynthesis
Compounds released from the weathering of rocks
Compounds formed from bacterial conversion
Compounds dissolved in precipitation
19) What effect would clear cutting within a watershed have on the water quality of a river running through the watershed?
Decrease in nutrient concentration in the waters of the clear-cut watershed
Increase in nutrient concentration in the waters of the clear-cut watershed
Decrease in the amount of runoff entering the waters of the clear-cut watershed
Increase in the biodiversity of the river
Clear-cutting should not have an effect on the water quality of a river.
20) A new field has developed that focuses on restoring damaged ecosystems. This field is known as
habitat balancing ecology.
21) Which ecosystems are considered to be the most diverse?
Ecosystems experiencing high levels of disturbance
Ecosystems experiencing intermediate levels of disturbance
Ecosystems experiencing low levels of disturbance
Ecosystems experiencing no disturbance
Ecosystems that once had high levels of disturbance but have been stable for hundreds of years
22) Which of the following is the best description of a region’s climate?
The average temperature and precipitation over several decades
The average precipitation over a 1–2 year time period
The average high temperature of a region
The amount of rainfall that an area receives over a period of 1 year
The average temperature and rainfall over a period of 1–2 years
23) Which of the following would not have a significant effect on the climate of a region?
The unequal heating of Earth by the Sun
Atmospheric convection currents
A single abnormally wet year due to El Niño
The rotation of Earth
Earth’s orbit around the Sun on a tilted axis
24) In which level of the atmosphere does weather occur?
25) Which level of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
26) What is the importance of the ozone layer?
It plays an important role in the greenhouse effect.
It reflects solar gamma radiation that would otherwise reach the Earth’s surface.
It acts as an insulator for the Earth and helps to maintain a livable temperature.
It absorbs incoming UV rays.
It reflects incoming heat back into space.
27) What best describes the temperature of the atmosphere?
It decreases as you increase in altitude in the troposphere.
It increases as you increase in altitude.
It maintains a constant level throughout the atmosphere.
It shows fluctuations up and down as you move through the layers of the atmosphere.
It does not change.
28) What is the cause of the differing seasons of the Earth?
The different distances of the Earth to the Sun based on the elliptical orbit
The different lengths of the day during summer and winter
The Coriolis effect
The tilt of the Earth on its axis
The speed of the orbit of the Earth around the Sun
29) What is one major role that these gyres play in global climate?
Currents redistribute heat from the north to the south.
Currents redistribute heat from the equator to northern latitudes.
They drive global wind patterns in the northern hemisphere.
They contribute to the Coriolis effect.
Currents redistribute tropical moisture.
30) What factors are used to classify a biome?
I. Average temperature
II. Average precipitation
III. Distinctive plants adapted to area
I and II
I, II, and III
31) Which of the following is the Earth’s most diverse biome?
Temperate seasonal forest
32) What biome has warm temperatures, high precipitation, and little seasonal variation due to its location near the equator?
Temperate grassland/cold desert